JAA ATPL Question Bank

010 - AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES 021 - AIRFRAME AND SYSTEMS, ELECTRICS, POWERPLANT, EM. EQUIPMENT 022 - INSTRUMENTATION 031 - MASS AND BALANCE - AEROPLANES 032 - PERFORMANCE - AEROPLANES 033 - FLIGHT PLANNING AND FLIGHT MONITORING 040 - HUMAN PERFORMANCE 050 - METEOROLOGY 061 - GENERAL NAVIGATION 062 - RADIO NAVIGATION 071 - OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES 081 - PRINCIPLES OF FLIGHT - AEROPLANE 091 - VFR COMMUNICATIONS 092 - IFR COMMUNICATIONS

[ATPL TOPICS] PERFORMANCE CLASS B - SINGLE ENGINE PERFORMANCE CLASS B - MULTI ENGINE PERFORMANCE CLASS A - JAA/FAA 25 CERTIFIED

[ATPL SUBTOPICS]

1 | The scheduled landing distance required is the distance: 2 | Which of the following statements is correct? 3 | VLO is defined as: 4 | The speed VS is defined as 5 | The rate of climb: 6 | Gross performance is: 7 | 4mm of rain is covering a runway. The runway is: 8 | Density altitude is the: 9 | Under what condition is pressure altitude and density altitude the same value? 10 | Pressure altitude is: 11 | The 'climb gradient' is defined as the ratio of: 12 | Which of the equations below expresses approximately the un-accelerated percentage climb g 13 | The stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the aeroplane is controllab 14 | What are the standard temperature and pressure values at sea level? 15 | The coefficient of lift can be increased either by flap extension or by 16 | The absolute ceiling is defined as: 17 | Regarding take-off, the take-off decision speed V1: 18 | For a single engine class B aeroplane, V2 may not be less than: 19 | What are the standard temperature and pressure values for sea level? 20 | The C of G is: 21 | Take-off distance available is: 22 | The load factor in a turn in level flight with constant TAS depends on: 23 | The gross take off distance required for a single engine Class B aircraft is the distance: 24 | The Density Altitude: 25 | The point where Drag coefficient/Lift coefficient is a minimum is: 26 | For a piston engine aircraft the Critical Altitude is: 27 | Total air temperature is defined as: 28 | The International Standard Atmosphere defines an atmosphere where Sea level temperature (i 29 | Which of the following statements is correct? 30 | The two requirements for take-off with which compliance is necessary are (single engine cl 31 | Decreasing take off flap from 15° to 0° will probably result in a _____ Vlof. 32 | (For this Question use CAP 698 Figure 2-4)
Accounting for the following, what would be 33 | The effect of a decrease in air density is to: 34 | At the moment of lift off: 35 | The landing distance required must not exceed (single engine class B): 36 | An upward runway slope: 37 | Which of the following combinations will produce the best take-off performance in a normal 38 | (Refer to CAP 698 figure 2-4)
With regard to the landing chart for the single engine ae 39 | (For this Question use CAP 698 Figure 2.2)
With regard to the take off performance char 40 | If a runway is wet, the landing distance required for a dry runway (single engine class B) 41 | What is the effect of flap extension on Vx and Vy? 42 | For a single engine class B aeroplane, take-off distance should be increased by... percent 43 | How does the thrust of fixed propeller vary during take-off run? The thrust 44 | Compared to still air conditions, if an aircraft takes off with a headwind: 45 | What is the effect of an increased flap angle on the optimum lift-to-drag ratio? 46 | For an aeroplane nn Performance Class B the net take-off flight path begins at a height of 47 | For an aeroplane in Performance Class B the following factors must be applied in determini 48 | (For this Question use CAP 698 Figure 2.4)
With regard to the landing chart for the sin 49 | Runway 30 is in use and the threshold elevation is 2139 feet, threshold elevation of runwa 50 | (For this Question use CAP698 Figure 2.4)
With regard to the landing chart for the sing 51 | (For this question use CAP 698 Figure 2.4 )
With regard to the graph for landing perfor 52 | (For this Question use CAP 698 Figure 2.2)
With regard to the take off performance char 53 | If the flap angle is reduced below the optimum take-off setting, the field limited take-of 54 | With the flaps in the take-off position, compared to the clean configuration, the climb gr 55 | A decrease in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following consequences on 56 | (For this Question use CAP 698 Figure 2.2)
With regard to the take off performance char 57 | The effect of increased weight on a glide descent in a normal atmosphere is: 58 | For a grass runway, the landing distance required for a paved runway should be (Class B si 59 | (For this Question use CAP 698 Figure 2-4)
With regard to the landing performance chart 60 | (Refer to CAP 698 figure 2-1)
With regard to the take off performance chart for the sin 61 | Given that the control requirement is met, the speed at the 50ft. screen must not be less 62 | The maximum angle of bank permitted after take-off below 50 feet for an aeroplane in Perfo 63 | (Refer to CAP 698 figures 2-1 & 2-2)
With regard to the take-off performance chart 64 | (For this Question use CAP 698 Figure 2.4)
Using the Landing Diagram, for single engine 65 | (CAP 698 figure 2.4)
Determine the gross landing distance required for the following co 66 | Consider the field length requirements for a class B aircraft where no stopway or clearway 67 | Other factors being equal , an increase in take-off weight will 68 | (For this Question use CAP 698 Figure 2.2)
With regard to the take off performance char 69 | (CAP 698 Figure 2.1)
Find the gross take-off distance required for the following condit 70 | An increase in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following consequences on 71 | (For this Question use CAP 698 Figure 2.4)
With regard to the landing chart for the sin 72 | The forces acting on an aircraft during the take-off run are: 73 | (Refer to CAP 698 Figure 2.1)
The following conditions apply to a take off aerodrome: 74 | To obtain the optimum descent distance the TAS must: 75 | For a single engine class B aeroplane, if there is no clearway or stopway, the gross take- 76 | (For this Question use CAP 698 Figure 2.2)
With regard to the take off performance char 77 | The landing distance required will be increased as a result of all of the following: 78 | What percentages of the headwind and tailwind components are taken into account when calcu 79 | Descending at a constant IAS the gradient of descent in a normal atmosphere will: 80 | (CAP 698 figure 2.1)
What is the maximum permissible take-off weight to comply with the 81 | Which of the following will probably result in the greatest increase in take-off distance? 82 | Which of the following statements is true (single engine class B)? 83 | If for aeroplane in Performance Class B the intended take-off flight path requires track c 84 | What happens to the field limited take off mass with runway slope? 85 | When landing on a dry paved runway (class B performance aircraft) with a downhill slope of 86 | If there is an increase in atmospheric pressure and all other factors remain constant, it 87 | What is the effect of an increased flap setting on VDmin (minimum drag speed)? 88 | The effect of increasing aircraft mass on the landing distance is: 89 | To determine the landing distance required (Class B single engine): 90 | Descending at a constant IAS and a constant gradient of descent, the pitch angle must be: 91 | Take-off performance data, for the ambient conditions, show the following limitations with 92 | (Refer to CAP698 figure 2-1)
An extract of the flight manual of a single engine propell 93 | Given that control requirements are adequate, the speed at the screen must not be less tha 94 | Which airspeed provides the greatest gain in altitude in the shortest distance during clim 95 | An increase in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following consequences on 96 | Which of the following combinations will give the most limiting takeoff weight if identica 97 | (For this Question use CAP698 Figure 2.4)
With regard to the landing chart for the sing 98 | (Refer to CAP 698 SEP figure 2.4)
If the landing distance required from 50ft for the pr 99 | How does a headwind affect the speed to fly at in a descent? 100 | Any acceleration in climb, with a constant power setting: 101 | If the speed brakes are extended during the descent while maintaining a constant speed, th 102 | To maintain the same angle of attack and altitude at a higher gross weight an aeroplane ne 103 | What will happen to VX and VY if the landing gear is extended? 104 | An aeroplane is climbing at a speed 10 KTS lower than the speed for best rate of climb: 105 | Compared to Vx and Vy in clean configuration, Vx and Vy in configuration with flaps extend 106 | When flying an aircraft on the back of the drag curve, maintaining a slower speed (but sti 107 | When comparing Vx to Vy: 108 | If the mass of an aircraft is increased: 109 | On a reciprocating engine aeroplane, with increasing altitude at constant gross mass, angl 110 | In a given configuration the endurance of a piston engine aeroplane only depends on: 111 | In un-accelerated climb 112 | Which airspeed provides the greatest gain in altitude in the shortest distance during clim 113 | What is density altitude? 114 | How does the best angle of climb and best rate of climb vary with increasing altitude? 115 | Which of the following combinations requires the least power for level flight? 116 | On a reciprocating engine aeroplane, to maintain a given angle of attack, configuration an 117 | Other factors remaining constant, how does increasing altitude affect Vx and Vy: 118 | In which of the flight conditions listed below is the thrust required (Tr) equal to the dr 119 | Which force compensates the weight in un-accelerated straight and level flight? 120 | When an aircraft reaches its service ceiling: 121 | (For this Question use CAP 698 Figure 2.3)
Using the climb performance chart, for the s 122 | For a jet aircraft, the speed to give the maximum rate of climb will be: 123 | With which conditions would the aircraft need to be flown, in order to achieve maximum spe 124 | What factors affect the descent angle in a glide? 125 | To obtain the maximum possible range when flying into a headwind, the speed should be: 126 | Assuming that the required lift exists, which forces determine an aeroplane's angle of cli 127 | What is the most important aspect of the 'backside of the power curve'? 128 | With regard to a un-accelerated horizontal flight, which of the following statement is cor 129 | As speed is reduced from Vmd to Vmp : 130 | When flying at the best angle of climb speed: 131 | At sea level ISA an aircraft has a rate of climb of 650 ft/min at an indicated air speed o 132 | The rate of climb depends on: 133 | The thrust required in a climb is equal to: 134 | On a reciprocating engine aeroplane, to maintain a given angle of attack, configuration an 135 | Regarding the best angle and best rate of descent speeds, which of the following statement 136 | In a power-off glide, an increase in aircraft mass will: 137 | A single engine aircraft has a climb gradient of 3.3% and a TAS of 100 kts. What is the ap 138 | Higher gross mass at the same altitude decreases the gradient and the rate of climb wherea 139 | If an aircraft flies at its best angle of climb it will: 140 | The recommended range speed may exceed the theoretical speed for maximum range because of: 141 | As speed increases the thrust of a fixed pitch propeller will : 142 | The maximum range for a piston /propeller aircraft is obtained at: 143 | When assessing the enroute performance, it may not be assumed that the aircraft is flying 144 | Given:

ROC = 860 ft / min
TAS = 92 kts
Wind = 16 kts Tail wind

What is 145 | At sea level ISA an aircraft has a rate of climb of 650ft/min at an indicated airspeed of 146 | The pilot of a single engine aircraft has established the climb performance. The carriage 147 | The effect of increased mass on the climb gradient is: 148 | Which airspeed provides the greatest gain in altitude in a given period of time? 149 | Which combination of forces on the aircraft determine the climb gradient: 150 | How does an increase in aircraft mass affect the gliding range? 151 | For a piston engine aircraft the service ceiling corresponds to: 152 | For a given mass, as altitude increases, the minimum total drag will: 153 | The maximum rate of descent will occur: 154 | The climbing speed that will attain the maximum gradient of climb: 155 | For an aircraft in steady straight flight, if the tail load is acting downwards for balanc 156 | If the aircraft mass increases, how does the (i) rate of climb, and (ii) rate of climb spe 157 | Given:

Still air gradient of climb: 5%
TAS: 250 kts
G/S: 200 kts

The r 158 | What affect has a tailwind on the maximum endurance speed? 159 | In a power-off glide in still air, to obtain the maximum glide range, the aircraft should 160 | The maximum excess power yields the maximum... that can be generated by the airplane at a 161 | The force that exactly opposes and balances lift in a straight and un-accelerated climb is 162 | What will the effect be of changes of ambient temperature on the performance of an aeropla 163 | A lower airspeed at constant mass and altitude requires 164 | Which of the following statements is correct? If the aircraft mass, in a horizontal un-acc 165 | With a headwind, compared to still air conditions, the rate of climb (i) and the climb ang 166 | (For this Question use CAP 698 Figure 2.3)
Using the climb performance chart, for the s 167 | (For this Question use CAP 698 Figure 2.3)
With regard to the climb performance chart f 168 | The maximum level flight speed will be obtained: 169 | In a banked turn: 170 | The effect of a tailwind on the glide angle and the rate of descent assuming same CAS will 171 | Which condition would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than actually flown 172 | An aircraft glides for a distance of 25 NM in still air at a speed of 75 knots IAS which i 173 | In straight and level flight the lift is opposed by the: 174 | A headwind component increasing with altitude, as compared to zero wind condition, (assumi 175 | When does THRUST = DRAG? 176 | On a reciprocating engine aeroplane, with increasing altitude at constant gross mass, angl 177 | (For this Question use CAP 698 Figure 2.3)
Using the climb performance chart, for the s 178 | An aircraft has a climb gradient of 7 percent after take-off. There is an obstacle having 179 | With increasing altitude, the rate of climb: 180 | The induced drag of an aeroplane at constant gross weight and altitude is highest at 181 | A higher outside air temperature 182 | The maximum indicated air speed of a piston engine aeroplane, in level flight, is reached: 183 | What is the minimum semi-width of the en-route obstacle domain permitted by the JAA? 184 | An aircraft has a descent gradient of 4.8% with the engine inoperative. For the purpose of 185 | As long as an aeroplane is in a positive climb: 186 | For a given aircraft mass, the climb gradient: 187 | For a given aircraft mass the climb gradient is determined by: 188 | The climb gradient will be reduced by: 189 | An aircraft is operating at the optimum glide speed. When mass decreases what happens to t 190 | Which statement is correct? 191 | Which would provide the greatest gain in altitude in the shortest distance during climb af 192 | When a stopway and/or a clearway is available the take-off distance must: 193 | For a piston engine aeroplane, the speed for maximum range is: 194 | V2 has to be equal to or higher than: 195 | A frangible obstacle is classed as: 196 | V1 has to be: 197 | For a multi engine aircraft not certified under JAR 25- Performance Class B, the absolute 198 | Reference zero is a point 35ft vertically beneath the aircraft at the end of: 199 | The rotation speed (Vr): 200 | With which conditions would one expect Vmc to be the lowest? 201 | The airspeed at which the main wheels of an aircraft leave the ground during take-off is c 202 | The speed V2 is defined for jet aeroplane as: 203 | Given that:

VEF = Critical engine failure speed
VMCG = Ground minimum control sp 204 | Which denotes the stall speed in the landing configuration? 205 | The take-off decision speed V1 is: 206 | Stalling speed in landing configuration is defined as the stalling speed 207 | The critical engine inoperative: 208 | ASDA is defined as: 209 | The stopway is an area which allows an increase only in : 210 | The speed at the 50 ft screen (VRef ) should be (Class B multi engine): 211 | Which statement regarding V1 is correct? 212 | A clearway: 213 | For a contaminant to be considered significant its depth must exceed: 214 | What is the advantage of a balanced field length condition? 215 | Vref is: 216 | Clearway length is limited by: 217 | The speed V1 is: 218 | Rotation speed Vr, for class B multi engine aeroplanes, must not be less than: 219 | Which take-off speed is affected by the presence or absence of stopway and/or clearway? 220 | Given:
RW 17 touchdown elevation = 146 feet
TORA = 1400 m
ASDA = 1600 m
TODA = 221 | The speed V1 is defined as: 222 | The estimated braking action for a runway having a friction coefficient of 0.35 would be: 223 | The Clearway at an aerodrome is an area beginning : 224 | The Service Ceiling is the pressure altitude where : 225 | Minimum control speed on ground, VMCG, is based on directional control being maintained by 226 | The landing reference speed VREF has, in accordance with international requirements, the f 227 | The maximum operating altitude for a certain aeroplane with a pressurised cabin: 228 | The minimum value of V2 must exceed " air minimum control speed" by: 229 | Vy is defined as: 230 | A BALANCED FIELD LENGTH is said to exist where: 231 | The speed V2 is: 232 | The take-off distance available is: 233 | Field length is balanced when 234 | A multi engine aeroplane is flying at the minimum control speed (VMCA). Which parameter(s) 235 | The load factor is the ratio of: 236 | A stopway is: 237 | For a twin-engine class B aircraft the rotation speed Vr must not be less than: 238 | The speed VLO is defined as 239 | A runway end safety area should extend from the end of the runway strip for as far as prac 240 | JAR-OPS state that propeller driven aircraft with a maximum approved passenger seating con 241 | The absolute ceiling: 242 | Given:

VS = Stalling speed
VMCA = Air minimum control speed
VMU = Minimum uns 243 | VX is defined as: 244 | The specific range (SR) is : 245 | Which of the following statements is correct? 246 | The drift down is a procedure applied: 247 | The Mach number is the ratio of: 248 | Stalling speed in landing configuration are certified with: 249 | Commuter aircraft are propeller driven twin engine aircraft that have a seating configurat 250 | In climb limited mass calculations, the climb gradient is a ratio of: 251 | The speed for best rate of climb is called 252 | What is pressure altitude? 253 | Which of the following three speeds of a jet aeroplane are basically identical?

The 254 | In a multi engine aeroplane the critical engine is 255 | Which of the following will decrease V1? 256 | The Gross performance of an aircraft is : 257 | What landing distance requirements must be met at an alternate airfield compared to a dest 258 | (CAP 698 figure 3.3)
Find the maximum permissible weight for take-off from an aerodrome 259 | Which conditions are most suited to a selection of low flap for take off? 260 | A higher pressure altitude at ISA temperature 261 | For an aircraft having a wing span of 20m, an obstacle at a distance of 1800m from the end 262 | If other factors are unchanged, the fuel mileage (nautical miles per kg) is: 263 | What effect has a downhill slope on the take-off speeds? The slope 264 | Changing the take-off flap setting from flap 15° to flap 5° will normally resu 265 | SFC will: 266 | The factorization of the reported along track wind component required by JAR-OPS1 when mak 267 | The lift-off speed and take-off safety speed (V2) when flap position is changed from 10&#x 268 | Which of the following speeds can be limited by the 'maximum tyre speed'? 269 | In a glide (power off descent) if pitch angle is increased, glide distance will: 270 | An aeroplane executes a steady glide at the speed for minimum glide angle. If the forward 271 | A runway is contaminated by a 0,5 cm layer of wet snow. The take-off is nevertheless autho 272 | On a dry runway the accelerate stop distance is increased 273 | The result of a higher flap setting up to the optimum at take-off is: 274 | When the outside air temperature increases, then 275 | Due to standing water on the runway the field length limited take-off mass will be 276 | What is the effect of increased mass on the performance of a gliding aeroplane? 277 | A runway is contaminated with 0.5 cm of wet snow. The flight manual of a light twin nevert 278 | To determine the flight path after take-off (multi engine class B), if the cloud base at t 279 | The most efficient angle of attack is: 280 | Which of the following combinations basically has an effect on the angle of descent in a g 281 | The take-off distance of an aircraft is 800m in standard atmosphere, no wind at 0 ft press 282 | For a multi-engine aircraft in Performance Class B the minimum gross gradient of climb aft 283 | If level flight is maintained but the air density decreases then this would cause: 284 | If the airworthiness documents do not specify a correction for landing on a wet runway; th 285 | The coefficient of lift may be increased by lowering the flaps or by: 286 | The angle of climb with flaps extended, compared to that with flaps retracted, will normal 287 | The speed for maximum lift/drag ratio will result in: 288 | Runway 05 is in use and the forecasted wind is 100/45. Calculate the headwind and crosswin 289 | Large flap settings: 290 | Induced drag is caused by: 291 | When approaching a wet runway, with the risk of hydroplaning, what technique should the pi 292 | The effect of change of ambient temperature on an aeroplane performance will be to: 293 | Why is there a requirement for an approach climb gradient? 294 | Which statement regarding the relationship between traffic load and range is correct? 295 | Climbing to cruise altitude with a headwind will: 296 | The absolute ceiling of an aircraft is the altitude at which: 297 | Which of the following statements is correct? 298 | During climb with all engines, the altitude where the rate of climb reduces to 100 ft/min 299 | Landing on a runway with 5mm wet snow will: 300 | With a true airspeed of 194 kt and a vertical speed of 1 000 ft/min, the climb gradient is 301 | How is VMCA influenced by increasing pressure altitude? 302 | (CAP 698 figure 3.4)
In the event of an engine failure during the take-off run, find th 303 | The induced drag of an aeroplane: 304 | In the drift down for an aeroplane in Performance Class B the net gradient of descent is a 305 | If an aircraft is put into a 2G turn from level flight, maintaining speed : 306 | How does the power required graph move with an increase in altitude? 307 | An aeroplane is in a power off glide at best gliding speed. If the pilot increases pitch a 308 | When flying in a headwind, the speed for max range should be: 309 | The speed at the 50ft screen (multi engine class B) should be: 310 | What is the effect of increased weight on (i) ROC and (ii) best ROC speed? 311 | Which of the following combinations adversely affects take-off and initial climb performan 312 | The position of the aerodynamic centre of an aerofoil in level flight is positioned at app 313 | Given:

Airfield elevation = 1 250 m
QNH = 1024 hPa
OAT = 34° C

T 314 | An aircraft is climbing at VX. If the speed is increased, maintaining the power setting, 315 | What is the effect of increasing the flap setting on (i) gradient and (ii) rate of climb? 316 | If the aircraft CG is moved into a more forward position : 317 | Which of the following statements is true with regard to the en-route regulations (Class B 318 | Which of the following statements is true regarding the performance of an aeroplane in lev 319 | Which of the following light twins will get more control difficulties if the left engine s 320 | What is the effect on the stalling speed ( IAS ) with (i) increased mass, (ii) increased a 321 | The coefficient of lift can be increased by lowering flaps or: 322 | Increased ambient temperature allows: 323 | In a level turn at constant indicated speed the load factor depends on: 324 | Following a take-off, limited by the 50 ft screen height, a light twin climbs on a gradien 325 | Ram effect is caused by: 326 | The optimum altitude 327 | Considering TAS for maximum range and maximum endurance, other factors remaining constant, 328 | You are the commander of a light twin piston aircraft. The aircraft performance has been c 329 | Induced drag is caused by: 330 | Calculate the still air gradient of climb, given that the aircraft climbs at 1500fpm with 331 | An aircraft has two certified landing flaps positions, 25° and 35° . If a pilot 332 | A higher temperature causes _____ in air density and _____ in lift. 333 | The maximum rate of climb speed for a propeller-driven aircraft is equal to: 334 | The speed that will attain the greatest rate of climb is where the greatest excess of: 335 | For a twin-engine class B aircraft, in the event of a single engine failure enroute: 336 | Given:

Pressure altitude = 2 080 ft
True temperature = +15º C

What 337 | At a given mass, the stalling speed of a twin engine aircraft is 100 kt in the landing con 338 | If mass increases, the power required curve of an aeroplane: 339 | (CAP 698 Figure 3.9)
Find the gross landing distance required, taking into account the 340 | What is the effect of extending flaps on VX and VY? 341 | Which of the following provides maximum obstacle clearance during climb? 342 | What happens to V_X and V_Y as altitude increases? 343 | With a low angle of attack drag is mostly: 344 | The effect an increase of altitude has on lift, if level flight is to be maintained, requi 345 | What will be the influence of the aeroplane performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is 346 | (CAP 698 figure 3.9)
Find the maximum planned landing weight to comply with the regulat 347 | The temperature at an airfield at 3 000 ft AMSL is 84° F. This represents: 348 | Maximum endurance for a piston engine aeroplane is achieved at: 349 | If the temperature decreases it will cause a: 350 | The pilot of a light twin engine aircraft has calculated a 4 000 m service ceiling, based 351 | For a multi engine aircraft not certified under JAR 25 and in Performance Class B, service 352 | Following a take-off determined by the 50ft (15m) screen height, a light twin climbs on a 353 | The lift required for climbing flight is: 354 | The minimum total drag of an aircraft in level flight occurs: 355 | Air density is reduced by: 356 | (CAP 698 figure 3.3)
Find the maximum permissible weight for take-off from an aerodrome 357 | On a twin engine piston aircraft with variable pitch propellers, for a given mass and alti 358 | A FLAT RATED jet engine will give: 359 | What is the effect of a 2% uphill runway slope on take-off distances? 360 | The maximum horizontal speed occurs when: 361 | A twin engine aeroplane in cruise flight with one engine inoperative has to fly over high 362 | Which of the following factors will lead to an increase of ground distance during a glide, 363 | Heavy rain may temporarily cause: 364 | What is the influence of the mass on maximum rate of climb (ROC) speed if all other parame 365 | Two identical aeroplanes at different masses are descending at idle thrust. Which of the f 366 | If the runway is wet, the landing distance required for a dry runway: 367 | Deployment of flaps .... CL/CD. 368 | When taking off from a runway with a 2 percent upslope in a class B performance aircraft, 369 | How does the lift coefficient for maximum range vary with altitude? (No compressibility ef 370 | If the net gradient of climb after take-off with all engines operating is 14 percent in th 371 | During climb to the cruising level, a headwind component 372 | The maximum rate of climb that can be maintained at the absolute ceiling is: 373 | Ignoring the effect of compressibility, what would CL do with an increase in altitude? 374 | For a turboprop powered aeroplane, a 2200 m long runway at the destination aerodrome is ex 375 | When flying the " Backside of Thrust curve" means 376 | If there is a tailwind: 377 | The climb gradient of an aircraft after take-off is 6% in standard atmosphere, no wind, at 378 | For an aircraft flying in conditions that would give the balked landing climb limit gradie 379 | The angle of attack at which most aerofoil will stall is: 380 | What is the effect of extending flaps on climb gradient and rate of climb? 381 | An aerodrome has a paved level runway of 5000ft. What distance should be used in the graph 382 | What is the effect of runway slope on take-off performance? 383 | How does a decreased pressure altitude at an airport affect aeroplane performance? 384 | (CAP 698 figure 3.3)
What length of take-off run must be available to meet the requirem 385 | What is the effect of a head wind component, compared to still air, on the maximum range s 386 | What is the effect of increased mass on the maximum rate of climb speed (all other factors 387 | The maximum rate of climb speed is: 388 | For normally aspirated reciprocating engines the brake horsepower delivered: 389 | A climb gradient required is 3,3%. For an aircraft maintaining 100 kt true airspeed , no w 390 | The speed instability region is: 391 | Where the ambient temperature is -34° C at a pressure altitude of 33 000 feet the ISA 392 | If the climb gradient in still air 3.2 percent, the height achieved is 640ft, what is the 393 | Which of the following factors favours the selection of a low flap setting for the take-of 394 | Which of the following statements is true with respect to the take-off flight path (multi 395 | For a turbo-prop aircraft, the LDA at an aerodrome is 2200 m. If the conditions are indica 396 | To achieve the maximum range over ground with headwind the airspeed should be 397 | Considering a turbine powered aircraft, when passing 35 feet at the end of the take-off di 398 | The take-off distance of an aircraft is 600m in standard atmosphere, no wind at 0 ft press 399 | An aerodrome has a pressure of 1013 mb and a temperature of 25° C, the pressure altit 400 | Which of the following variables does not affect the value of Vmc? 401 | The balked landing climb requirement must be met in the following configuration (Class B m 402 | (Refer to CAP698 figure 3.7)
Given:
Pressure Altitude: 4000 ft
Temperature: ISA + 403 | (Refer to CAP 698 figure 3.7)
Given:

Pressure Altitude: 14 000 ft
Temperature 404 | If pressure altitude increases, the power required curve of aeroplane: 405 | (Refer to CAP698 figure 3.7)
Given:

Pressure Altitude: 4000 ft
Temperature: I 406 | (Refer to CAP698 figure 3-2)
Given:

Pressure Altitude: 4000 ft
Temperature: I 407 | If the mass of an aircraft is increased, the power required curve: 408 | (For this Question use CAP 698 Figure 3.4)
With regard to the graph for the light twin 409 | (Refer to CAP 698 figure 2-4)
Given:

Flaps: 40°
Aerodrome pressure alti 410 | (Refer to CAP 698 figures 3-5 & 3-6)
Multi-engine piston aircraft of performance c 411 | (Refer to CAP 698 figure 2-1)
Given:

Flaps: UP
Aerodrome pressure altitude: 6 412 | The flight manual of a light twin engine recommends two cruise power settings, 65 and 75%. 413 | (Refer to CAP698 figure 3.7)
Given:

Pressure Altitude: 14 000 ft
Temperature: 414 | Considering a rate of climb diagram (ROC versus TAS) for an aeroplane. In which direction 415 | What effect, if any, does high humidity have on aircraft performance? 416 | Maximum and minimum values of V1 are limited by: 417 | When an aircraft takes off with the mass limited by the TODA: 418 | At a given aerodrome the runway length, pressure altitude and OAT, as well as other data a 419 | If not VMBE or Vmcg limited, what would V1 be limited by: 420 | Which of the following statements is correct : 421 | The take-off distance required increases: 422 | In case of an engine failure which is recognized at or above V1: 423 | The effect on a too late rotation will be an: 424 | Which of the following relations is correct? 425 | The effect of a runway contaminated with 0.5 cm of slush on take-off calculations would be 426 | Wet snow is comprised of: 427 | Can take-off be scheduled if V1 < VMCG? 428 | If the take-off mass of an aeroplane is brake energy limited a higher uphill slope would: 429 | The speed V2 of a jet aeroplane must be greater than: 430 | The Take off Distance Required on a dry runway is : 431 | (Refer to CAP 698 Figure 4.4)
Find the field length limited take-off mass given the fol 432 | What are the minimum and maximum values of V1? 433 | VR for a jet aircraft must be faster than, the greater of: 434 | For a take-off from a contaminated runway, which of the following statements is correct? 435 | Assuming identical runway slope and wind component values, which of the following combinat 436 | When operating with anti-skid inoperative: 437 | VR cannot be lower than: 438 | Uphill slope: 439 | With a decreased flap setting from 20° to 10° on take off the effect will be: 440 | Vr for transport category aircraft must be at least: 441 | The vertical clearance of obstacles required on the take off flight path is: 442 | If takeoff weight is limited by Climb Requirements (A/C weight > 5700kg), then it means: 443 | If a V1 in excess of the calculated value is used for take-off then: 444 | During certification testing of a two-engine jet aircraft, the true take-off distances wer 445 | Which of the following statements is correct? 446 | Take off run required for a jet aircraft, with one engine inoperative is: 447 | Which of the following will not cause the climb limited take-off weight to decrease: 448 | Runway 02 has a threshold elevation of 230 ft and runway 20 has a threshold elevation of 2 449 | What will be the effect on an aeroplanes performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is dec 450 | During certification flight testing on a four engine turbojet aeroplane the actual take-of 451 | Other factors remaining constant and not limiting, how does increasing pressure altitude a 452 | Which one of the following is not affected by a tail wind? 453 | When take off mass is limited by VMBE, an increase in the uphill slope will: 454 | The take-off mass could be limited by: 455 | If the balanced field length required for a given weight is less than the balanced field l 456 | The speed V1 may never exceed: 457 | What is the advantage of balancing V1, even in the event of a climb limited take-off? 458 | Balanced V1 is selected: 459 | The time delay included in take-off calculations for the recognition and reaction to an en 460 | The one engine out take-off run is the distance between the brake release point and: 461 | Water equivalent depth is: 462 | Select the correct sequence of speeds : 463 | Which of the following is true with regard to VMCA (air minimum control speed)? 464 | During certification test flights for a turbojet aeroplane, the actual measured take-off r 465 | The take-off safety speed V2min for turbo-propeller powered aeroplanes with more than thre 466 | Reduced take-off thrust: 467 | What is the effect of a negative runway slope? 468 | Putting in 16500 litres of fuel with an SG of 780 kg/m3, and writing 16500 kg of fuel on t 469 | Which of the following combinations will most likely cause the greatest increase in the ta 470 | The clearway is defined as: 471 | Regarding the obstacle limited take-off mass, which of the following statements is correct 472 | A runway is considered to be contaminated when: 473 | Clearway may not exceed: 474 | Increase in ambient temperature will result in: 475 | If the value of the balanced V1 is found to be lower than VMCG, which of the following is 476 | Which is the correct sequence of speeds during take-off? 477 | The length of a clearway may be included in: 478 | Can the length of a stopway be added to the runway length to determine the take-off distan 479 | The definition of V3 is: 480 | A higher outside air temperature (OAT): 481 | During the flight preparation the climb limited take-off mass (TOM) is found to be much gr 482 | Which statement related to a take-off from a wet runway is correct? 483 | Considering the undercarriage assembly, the factors that limit aircraft performance are... 484 | Which factors might cause V2 to be limited by VMCA?

1. large flap angles
485 | If the actual take off weight is higher than that recorded on the load sheet, what would 486 | Take-off run is defined as the: 487 | The rolling friction drag of an aircrafts wheels during take-off: 488 | The TODA is: 489 | What is TODA? 490 | A reduction in air density causes: 491 | What procedure is likely to require V1 to be reduced? 492 | Which statement regarding the influence of a runway down-slope is correct for a balanced t 493 | Which statement regarding V1 is correct? 494 | Which of the following answers is true? 495 | The lowest take-off safety speed (V2 min) is: 496 | VR must be: 497 | If a balanced field is used for take-off calculations when the actual field distances are 498 | The safety margin included in the take-off graphs for Class A aeroplane calculations with 499 | During the take-off run the thrust of a jet engine: 500 | May anti-skid be considered to determine the take-off and landing data? 501 | At the moment of lift off for a Class A aeroplane the: 502 | The climb limited take-off mass can be increased by: 503 | In which of the following distances can the length of a stopway be included? 504 | The speed Vmu is (class A): 505 | A frangible obstacle in the take-off path: 506 | During the flight preparation a pilot makes a mistake by selecting a V1 greater than that 507 | The effect of a higher take-off flap setting up to the optimum is: 508 | During aircraft certification, the value of VMCG is found with nose wheel steering inopera 509 | The speed VR: 510 | Assuming that the acceleration is constant during the take-off, if the take-off speed is i 511 | If the flap setting is changed from 10º to 20º , V2MIN will: 512 | Vmu is defined as: 513 | If the field length limited take off mass has been calculated using a Balanced Field Lengt 514 | For a class A aircraft the rotation speed VR must not be less than : 515 | The decision speed at take-off (V1) is the calibrated airspeed: 516 | At the same aircraft mass if a higher V1 was used then... 517 | A balanced field length occurs when: 518 | The required Take-off Distance (TOD) and the field length limited Take-off Mass (TOM) are 519 | If the aircraft takes off at the wet V1 instead of the dry V1, what is the effect on (i) T 520 | Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used when: 521 | The operational regulations regarding scheduled performance are contained in the following 522 | The maximum depth of wet snow that the CAA recommends does not cover any part of the runwa 523 | The semi-width of the stopway is: 524 | Which of the following represents the maximum value for V1 assuming max tyre speed and max 525 | Which of the following sequences represents the correct order on take-off? 526 | How does runway slope affect allowable take-off mass, assuming other factors remain consta 527 | Which are the two most important parameters to determine the value of VMCG? 528 | If the aerodrome pressure altitude increases, VR... and Vlof... 529 | With regard to a take-off from a wet runway, which of the following statements is correct? 530 | In case of an engine failure recognized below V1: 531 | The maximum reduction in thrust permitted, when performing a reduced thrust take-off, is.. 532 | Compared with still air, a tailwind will cause the value of V1 to: 533 | A balanced field exists if: 534 | The maximum length of stopway is not limited by: 535 | For a contaminant to be considered significant its depth must exceed: 536 | How is V2 affected if T/O flaps 20° is chosen instead of T/O flaps 10° ? 537 | At an airfield which has a high absolute humidity compared to an airfield with low absolut 538 | It is recommended that the maximum crosswind for take-off on a contaminated surface is: 539 | For a given wind speed, the regulations on wind factor give the least margin of safety on 540 | An airport has a 3000 metres long runway, and a 2000 metres clearway at each end of that r 541 | Which statement, in relation to the climb limited take-off mass of a jet aeroplane, is cor 542 | The minimum value of V2 (class A): 543 | How does the slush thickness affect the required V1 reduction? 544 | Take off is to be made with the anti skid system inoperative. Compared to normal operation 545 | Which of the following represents the minimum for V1? 546 | Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used when: 547 | Which combination of circumstances or conditions would most likely lead to a tyre speed li 548 | (CAP 698 Figure 4.9)
For the following aerodrome conditions, a take off mass of 62000 k 549 | Which statement is correct? 550 | Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used when: 551 | During take off, the time between critical engine failure and V1 (recognition time) is ass 552 | The take-off performance requirements for transport category aeroplanes are based upon: 553 | The effects of a contaminated runway on the field limit mass are: 554 | During take-off, in the event of an engine failure before V1 then take-off: 555 | Which of the following are to be taken into account for the runway in use for take-off? 556 | During the certification flight testing of a twin engine turbojet aeroplane the real take- 557 | Concerning the landing gear, which of the following factors would limit the take-off mass? 558 | The 'maximum tyre speed' limits: 559 | The purpose of the MAT limited TOM is to ensure that in the event of the critical engine f 560 | Fill in the blanks in the following statement which relates to field length limit requirem 561 | If the antiskid system is inoperative, which of the following statements is true? 562 | The balanced field length for an aircraft is when, in the event of an engine failure durin 563 | Which of the following distances will increase if you increase V1? 564 | A 1% upslope will cause the value of V1 to: 565 | Which statement concerning the inclusion of a clearway in take-off calculation is correct? 566 | If a jet engine fails during take off, before V1: 567 | Maximum abandonment speed is the maximum speed from which the aircraft can: 568 | When calculating the accelerate-stop distance required, braking is assumed to begin: 569 | Up to which height in NADP 1 noise abatement procedure must V2 + 10-20 Kts be maintained? 570 | In the event of engine failure below V1, the first action to be taken by the pilot in orde 571 | Complete the following statement regarding the take-off performance of an aeroplane in per 572 | With respect to field length limit fill in the blanks in the follow statement:

'The 573 | The requirement with regards to obstacles in is that the net take-off flight path should c 574 | The requirements with regard to take-off flight path and the climb segments are only speci 575 | The minimum climb gradient is 2.6%. At 11,000 kg the climb gradient is 2.8%. How much weig 576 | V2 is defined as: 577 | Which of the following statements is true regarding the increased V2 procedure? 578 | For a class A aircraft, the climb is subdivided into various segments. Which of the follow 579 | For a Class A aircraft the net take-off flight path is subdivided into various segments. W 580 | If there is a tail wind, the climb limited TOM will: 581 | Requirements for the third segment of climb are: 582 | The Net Take-off Flight Path terminates when the aeroplane attains a height above referenc 583 | The first segment of the take-off flight path ends: 584 | In the second segment during take off, flap and gear are: 585 | When V1 has to be reduced because of a wet runway the one engine out obstacle clearance / 586 | The climb gradient correction necessary for a turn using 20° of bank is: 587 | What is the minimum height to fly level at the beginning of the third segment? 588 | Which of the following statements is applicable to the acceleration height at the beginnin 589 | Take-off with increased V2 speed may be used when: 590 | Stabilising altitude is: 591 | The net flight path climb gradient after take-off compared to the gross climb gradient is: 592 | An aircraft take off weight is climb limited. If there is a significant headwind the take 593 | After takeoff, which airspeed should be flown in order to gain the highest altitude in a g 594 | The net take-off flight path gradient for a 2 engine aircraft is the gross gradient reduce 595 | If an aircraft is to make a 25° banked turn during the climb out the speed required 596 | For a turbojet aeroplane the third segment of climb begins when: 597 | In relation to the net take-off flight path, the required 35 ft vertical distance to clear 598 | Which of the following statements, concerning the obstacle limited take-off mass for perfo 599 | The effect of increasing the V2 speed for a given take off mass and aerodrome conditions i 600 | In a turbojet aircraft, if an engine fails in the second segment of the climb at a speed o 601 | Which of the following sets of factors will increase the climb-limited TOM? 602 | In the event that the take-off mass is obstacle limited and the take-off flight path inclu 603 | For a turbojet aeroplane the second segment of the climb begins when: 604 | An operator shall ensure that the net take-off flight path clears all obstacles. The half- 605 | The minimum height of flap retraction for a Class A aeroplane is: 606 | Which T/O condition is most likely resulting in the poorest climb performance? 607 | For take-off obstacle clearance calculations, obstacles in the first segment may be avoide 608 | The second segment begins: 609 | Which combination of atmospheric conditions will reduce aircraft takeoff and climb perform 610 | Which of the following set of factors could lead to a V2 value which is limited by VMCA? 611 | Given that the characteristics of a three engine turbojet aeroplane are as follows:
612 | For a jet aircraft the climb is subdivided into various segments. Which of the following s 613 | The take-off safety speed V2 for two-engine or three-engine turbo propeller powered aeropl 614 | How does the maximum climb limited take-off mass change under tailwind conditions? 615 | The minimum value of V2 (V2min) : 616 | If the flap selection is changed from 5º to 15º then V2 will: 617 | At which minimum height will the second climb segment end? 618 | If a turn is commenced during the take off flight path, the load factor (i), the induced d 619 | V2 MIN is determined by: (excluding Vmca) 620 | Runway 09/27 has a length of 2000 m, the elevation of the 09 threshold is 250 ft and the e 621 | Required net climb gradients in the 1st segment for 3-engine aircraft with one engine out 622 | The minimum climb gradient required on the 2nd flight path segment after the take-off of a 623 | Which of the following statements is correct? 624 | Given:

BRP: 3420 ft AMSL
Runway slope: 1.3% downhill
TODR: 2760 m
Obstacle 625 | For the third segment of the take off flight path, which of the following combinations of 626 | The minimum gross climb gradient in the first take-off segment, for a twin-engine aeroplan 627 | An obstacle is positioned at 2400m from the end of TODA and is offset 400m from the centre 628 | Vx and Vy with take-off flaps will be: 629 | The height below which turns are not permitted after take-off is: 630 | What is the maximum angle of bank planned for in a curved flight path during climb out on 631 | How will frost on the wings of an airplane affect takeoff performance? 632 | A turbo-prop aircraft with a maximum all up mass in excess of 5700 kg, is limited to: 633 | The reduction to be applied to the gross gradient to obtain the net gradient for a twin-en 634 | The minimum time from VLOF to the initiation of undercarriage retraction is: 635 | The second segment gradient requirement for a two engine aircraft is 2.4%. If the total dr 636 | Which of the following statements is correct with regard to turns on the take-off flight p 637 | If an aircraft changes course by 10° in the climb and the required navigational accu 638 | The second segment gradient requirement for a two engine aircraft is 2.4%. If the V2 speed 639 | The take-off mass of an aeroplane is restricted by the climb limit. What would be the effe 640 | A Boeing 747-400 has a wing span of 64.4 m. When considering relevant obstacles for the ta 641 | Which of the following is not affected by a wind component on take-off? 642 | Which of the following statements with regard to the actual acceleration height at the beg 643 | What factors would cause V2 to be limited by Vmca? 644 | If the climb speed schedule is changed from 280/.74 to 290/.74 the new crossover altitude 645 | What is the effect of tail wind on the time to climb to a given altitude? 646 | You climb with a climb speed schedule 300/.78. What do you expect in the crossover altitud 647 | The diminishment to be applied to the gross gradient to obtain the net gradient for a twin 648 | A head wind will: 649 | At MSL, in ISA conditions, climb gradient = 6 %. What would the climb gradient be if:
< 650 | The amount by which the gross gradient must be diminished to determine the net gradient of 651 | An increase in ambient temperature causes the absolute ceiling to: 652 | When climbing at a constant MNo through the troposphere, TAS: 653 | Which speed provides maximum obstacle clearance during climb? 654 | An aircraft is climbing as a constant Mach number in ISA conditions. Above the tropopause 655 | For a given aircraft mass, the climb gradient : 656 | What happens to the speed for Vx and Vy with increasing altitude? 657 | For an aircraft climbing at a constant IAS, the True airspeed (i) and the Mach number (ii) 658 | Of the four forces acting on an aircraft what balances thrust in a climb? 659 | How does an increased altitude affect the indicated stalling speed (when compressibility e 660 | In a climb, at a constant IAS / Mach No. 300 kts / 0.78 M., what happens at the change ove 661 | Compared to the gross gradient of climb the net climb gradient will be: 662 | Which of the following sequences of speed for a jet aeroplane is correct? (from low to hig 663 | With a jet aeroplane the maximum climb angle can be flown at approximately: 664 | During climb, the maximum rate of climb: 665 | A constant headwind component: 666 | Climbing in a normal atmosphere, at a constant Mach no. the effect of a head wind on the r 667 | To maintain climb airspeed following an increase in temperature the rate of climb is: 668 | When the climb speed plan changes from 280/.74 to 290/.74 the new changeover altitude will 669 | A four jet-engine aeroplane (mass = 150 000 kg) is established on climb with all engines o 670 | Other factors remaining constant, how does increasing altitude affect Vx and Vy: 671 | On a segment of the take-off flight path an obstacle requires a minimum gradient of climb 672 | Given a jet aircraft. Which order of increasing speeds in the performance diagram is corre 673 | The best rate of climb at a constant gross mass 674 | For a given aircraft mass as altitude increases the effect on the margins to the low speed 675 | A jet aeroplane is climbing at constant Mach number below the tropopause. Which of the fol 676 | An aircraft with a climb gradient of 3.3%, flying at an IAS of 85 KTS. At a pressure ALT o 677 | The main reason for using the stepped climb technique is to: 678 | An aircraft has a mass of 5700 kg, the drag at best climb speed is 6675 N and the thrust a 679 | Relative to the ground a headwind ____ the effective climb angle and a tailwind ____ the e 680 | Which of the following statements is correct? 681 | An aircraft has a climb speed schedule of 250 KIAS / 0.8 M. If the climb TAS is increased 682 | A jet aeroplane is climbing with constant IAS. Which operational speed limit is most likel 683 | In a constant Mach number climb, how does True Airspeed vary? 684 | When climbing at a constant Mach number in the troposphere, what is the effect on (i) IAS 685 | The lowest point of the drag or thrust required curve of a jet aeroplane, respectively, is 686 | Climbing to cruise altitude in a headwind will: 687 | A jet aeroplane is climbing at a constant IAS and maximum climb thrust, how will the climb 688 | At mean sea level in ISA conditions the aircraft climb gradient is 6%. Use the corrections 689 | As altitude increases the stalling speed of an aircraft in terms of (i) IAS, (ii) TAS and 690 | Which statement with respect to the step climb is correct? 691 | What happens when an aeroplane climbs at a constant Mach number? 692 | How does TAS vary in a constant Mach climb in the troposphere? 693 | What happens to the drag of a jet aeroplane if, during the initial climb after take off, c 694 | The drift down procedure is used: 695 | Vmca is defined as the minimum speed at which directional control can be maintained in fli 696 | How does the long range cruise speed change? 697 | All other factors being equal minimum drag speed is... 698 | Long range cruise is a flight procedure which gives: 699 | If the angle of attack is increased from 4 degrees to 8 degrees: 700 | The tangent from the origin to the power required curve for a jet aircraft gives: 701 | What is a COST INDEX? 702 | Under which condition should you fly considerably lower (4000 ft or more) than the optimum 703 | For a jet aeroplane consumption is directly proportional to: 704 | Endurance for a jet aircraft is a maximum: 705 | Which of the following variables will not affect the shape or position of the drag-IAS cur 706 | Referring to the diagram 4-24 in CAP 698, why does the curve for an equivalent weight of 3 707 | For a jet engine aeroplane, the long range cruise speed is: 708 | Maximum endurance: 709 | What is the effect of the centre of gravity on fuel consumption? 710 | For a given flight level the speed range determined by the buffet onset boundary will decr 711 | Long range cruise is selected as: 712 | Which one of the following statements concerning drift-down is correct? 713 | Equivalent airspeed is equal to: 714 | The service ceiling of an aircraft is defined as: 715 | The pilots of a jet aircraft wish to reach the destination with minimum use of fuel. They 716 | At speeds below minimum drag: 717 | If the thrust available exceeds the thrust required for level flight: 718 | Which of the jet engine ratings below is not a certified rating? 719 | Which of the equations below defines specific range (SR)? 720 | A common unit for Thrust Specific Fuel Consumption (TSFC): 721 | A twin jet aeroplane is in cruise, with one engine inoperative, and has to overfly a high 722 | For a jet engine powered airplane which of the following corresponds to the speed for best 723 | For a given aircraft mass, flying with a cost index greater that zero set will result in: 724 | Below the optimum cruise altitude: 725 | Buffet may occur : 726 | If the aircraft mass is increased by 10% at a constant IAS below Mcrit : 727 | The danger associated with low speed and/or high speed buffet: 728 | The centre of gravity near, but still within, the aft limit: 729 | The maximum speed that can be achieved in level flight will occur : 730 | If there is a tailwind: 731 | The maximum endurance for a jet aircraft is obtained at: 732 | Why are STEP CLIMBS used on long distance flights? 733 | With all other things remaining unchanged and with T the outside static air temperature ex 734 | The speed for maximum endurance: 735 | As you accelerate in level flight from the speed at CLMax to maximum speed the total drag: 736 | The Specific Fuel Consumption (SFC) for a jet engine is: 737 | During a driftdown following engine failure, what would be the correct procedure to follow 738 | For an aircraft in a level flight cruise at Vmd, if the mass is decreased : 739 | An aeroplane operating under the 180 minutes ETOPS rule may be up to: 740 | What is the relationship between total drag (TD) and airspeed (V) at speeds greater than V 741 | The speed range between low speed buffet and high speed buffet 742 | At a given altitude, when a turbojet aeroplane mass is increased by 5%, assuming the engin 743 | The minimum drag speed is a function of: 744 | The speed for long range cruise is: 745 | For a non-ETOPs approved twin engine aircraft: 746 | For a jet aircraft the maximum achievable True Air Speed will occur: 747 | Considering max range vs headwind: 748 | In the drag versus TAS curve for a jet aeroplane, the speed for maximum range corresponds 749 | ETOPS flight is a twin engine jet aeroplane flight conducted over a route, where no suitab 750 | The long range cruise speed is in relation to the speed for maximum range cruise. 751 | The drift down procedure is applied... 752 | Which of the following is a reason to operate an aeroplane at 'long range speed'? 753 | For an aircraft cruising at a constant altitude and a constant angle of attack, as weight 754 | Which of the following statements is correct with regard to the en-route regulations for t 755 | During cruise phase the net flight-profile of a 3-engine jet aeroplane with one engine ino 756 | Region of REVERSED COMMAND means: 757 | The optimum cruise altitude increases: 758 | The aerodynamic ceiling: 759 | On a long distance flight the gross mass decreases continuously as a consequence of the fu 760 | With respect to the optimum altitude, which of the following statements is correct? 761 | The effect of flying at the Long Range Cruise speed instead of the Maximum Range Cruise sp 762 | The optimum altitude for a turbojet is: 763 | If a flight is performed with a higher " Cost Index" at a given mass which of t 764 | The tangent from the origin to the Power-speed curve will give the speed for (jet aircraft 765 | Which of the following statements is correct with regard to increasing altitude? 766 | For a jet engine without limiters, thrust will increase as a result of: 767 | Under which conditions would VMC be lowest? 768 | It may be advantageous to fly below the optimum range altitude because: 769 | The optimum cruise altitude is: 770 | Most jet aircraft cruise at.... of their maximum RPM. 771 | Which of the following factors determines the maximum flight altitude in the " Buffet 772 | Compared to the maximum range cruise speed, the long range cruise speed is: 773 | At maximum range speed in a turbojet the angle of attack is: 774 | Vne is defined as the: 775 | Two identical turbojet aeroplanes (whose specific fuel consumption is assumed to be consta 776 | For a jet transport aeroplane, which of the following is the reason for the use of 'maximu 777 | The speed for minimum power in a turbojet will be: 778 | With regards to the optimum altitude during the cruise, the aircraft is: 779 | Gross fuel flow is equal to: 780 | The tangent from the origin to the Drag-Speed curve will give, for a jet aircraft, the spe 781 | After engine failure the aeroplane is unable to maintain its cruising altitude. What is th 782 | Aft centre of gravity (within the approved limits): 783 | At constant thrust and constant altitude the fuel flow of a jet engine: 784 | If the calculations for an aeroplane of 3250lb indicate a service ceiling of 4000m. What w 785 | With one or two engines inoperative the best specific range at high altitudes is: 786 | Which speed represents the manoeuvring speed? 787 | Which is true about flight on the back end of the 'power curve/drag curve'? 788 | A jet aeroplane is flying long range cruise. How does the specific range / fuel flow chang 789 | Which of the following statements with regard to the optimum cruise altitude (best, fuel m 790 | A jet aeroplane is performing a maximum range flight. The speed corresponds to: 791 | With respect to en-route diversions (using drift down graph), if you believe that you will 792 | To obtain the maximum range for a jet aircraft it should be flown: 793 | During a cruise flight of a jet aeroplane at constant flight level and at the maximum rang 794 | For a turbojet flying at maximum range speed the angle of attack... 795 | Net thrust is: 796 | Which of the following parameters have an influence on high-speed buffeting? 797 | Maximum endurance for jet aircraft are found: 798 | The intersections of the thrust available and the drag curve are the operating points of t 799 | The specific fuel consumption (sfc) for a jet engine is best (lowest) at: 800 | The airspeed for jet aeroplanes at which power required is a minimum: 801 | For a jet aircraft to travel a given distance, the speed to be flown that would result in 802 | Consider the graphic representation of the power required versus true air speed (TAS), for 803 | The thrust of a jet engine at constant RPM: 804 | With zero wind, the angle of attack for maximum range for an aeroplane with turbojet engin 805 | The buffet onset boundary chart tells the pilot: 806 | As speed is reduced below VMD: 807 | Which of the following statements is correct with regard to cruising speed: 808 | Two identical turbojet aeroplane (whose specific fuel consumptions are considered to be eq 809 | The drift down procedure specifies requirements concerning the: 810 | Moving the centre of gravity from the forward to the aft limit (gross mass, altitude and a 811 | A jet aircraft's maximum altitude is usually limited by: 812 | 'Drift down' is the procedure to be applied: 813 | An ETOPS aircraft is a twin engine aircraft which en-route is allowed to operate further f 814 | When in a gliding manoeuvre, in order to achieve maximum endurance the aircraft should be 815 | Given a constant cruising altitude and constant angle of attack (assuming no compressibili 816 | Which data can be extracted from the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart? 817 | When flying at high altitudes speed range becomes narrow due to: 818 | A higher altitude at constant mass and Mach number requires 819 | An engine fails at height. The subsequent drift down should be flown at: 820 | Given a constant altitude. If the mass of a jet aeroplane is increased by 5% and assuming 821 | A jet aeroplane equipped with old engines has a specific fuel consumption of 0.06 kg per N 822 | An aircraft is flying straight and level at height. If the mass were increased what action 823 | At a constant Mach number the thrust and the fuel flow of a jet engine: 824 | The pilot of a jet aeroplane wants to use a minimum amount of fuel between two airfields. 825 | (Refer to CAP698 figure 4.3)
Given:

Pressure Altitude: 33000 ft
Indicated Mac 826 | For jet-engine aeroplanes, what is the effect of increased altitude on specific range? 827 | Absolute ceiling occurs... 828 | (Refer to CAP 698 Figure 4.5)
PMC is the: 829 | Flying at an altitude close to coffin corner gives: 830 | Which statement with respect to the step climb is correct? 831 | The drift down requirements are based on: 832 | An aircraft with 180 minutes ETOPS approval must be: 833 | If the level-off altitude is below the obstacle clearance altitude during a drift down pro 834 | With a constant weight and Mach number, a higher altitude will require: 835 | The optimum long-range cruise altitude for a turbojet aeroplane: 836 | The allowable landing weight will: 837 | An aircraft is descending in the troposphere from FL350 to FL250 at a constant Mach number 838 | The aquaplaning speed : 839 | The maximum mass for landing could be limited by: 840 | In a steady descending flight (descent angle GAMMA) equilibrium of forces acting on the ae 841 | For a turbo jet aircraft planning to land on a wet runway, the landing distance available 842 | Dynamic hydroplaning is likely to occur as a result of a combination of: 843 | If the anti-skid system is inoperative: 844 | What margin above the stall speed is provided by the landing reference speed VREF? 845 | Which of the following is not affected by a tailwind: 846 | The lift coefficient decreases during a glide with constant Mach number, mainly because th 847 | You are in descent on a ILS with a constant CAS, compared with a nil wind situation, a tai 848 | A flight is planned with a turbojet aeroplane to an aerodrome with a landing distance avai 849 | By what factor must the landing distance available (dry runway) for a turbojet powered aer 850 | Which of the following statements is correct? 851 | Decreasing air density will give: 852 | For jet aeroplanes which of the following statements is correct? 853 | In dry conditions, when landing at an alternate airport in a turbojet by what factor shoul 854 | According to JAR-OPS 1, which one of the following statements concerning the landing dista 855 | At maximum landing mass, the structure of the aircraft is designed for a rate of descent o 856 | In a turbo-prop aircraft you are planning to land at an airfield with a runway 2200m long. 857 | The maximum landing weight may be determined by the landing climb gradient requirement. 858 | Which of the following is not affected by tailwind? 859 | (For this Question use CAP 698 Figure 4.28)
What is the minimum field length required f 860 | To minimize the risk of hydroplaning during landing the pilot should: 861 | May the whole runway always be used for landing? 862 | The approach climb requirement has been established so that the aeroplane will achieve: 863 | The maximum demonstrated crosswind component is equal to 0.2 VSO and the following conditi 864 | Which of the following factors leads to the maximum flight time of a glide? 865 | In wet conditions what extra percentage over the calculated (gross) landing distance must 866 | The landing requirements for a class A aircraft are : 867 | The landing field length required for jet aeroplanes at the alternate (wet condition) is t 868 | Two identical aircraft, one with a light load and one with a heavy load, are in a glide de 869 | When gliding into a headwind airspeed should be: 870 | In addition to other requirements, the approach climb requirement is based on: 871 | In a constant Mach descent which one of the following speeds will be exceeded first? 872 | For performance Class A aircraft when calculating the landing mass the runway slope must b 873 | During the landing run with wheel brakes applied and engines in reverse thrust, as the spe 874 | For turbojet aircraft weighing more than 5700 kg in transport CAT when landing on wet runw 875 | An aircrafts descent speed schedule is 0.74 M / 250 KIAS. During the descent from 30000 ft 876 | Which of the following statements regarding reverse thrust is true? 877 | An aeroplane carries out a descent from FL 410 to FL 270 at cruise Mach number, and from F 878 | Vref is defined as: 879 | Which of the following statements relating to hydroplaning is true? 880 | What is the minimum landing threshold clearance height for calculating landing distance? 881 | A constant headwind: 882 | What are the three types of hydroplaning? 883 | To meet the balked landing requirements an aircraft must achieve a climb gradient of : 884 | Required runway length at destination airport for turboprop aeroplanes: 885 | An aircraft is descending at a constant Mach number. The IAS (i) and the TAS (ii) will : 886 | Which speed represents maximum landing gear extended speed? 887 | An aircraft is descending at 193kt TAS in still air with a vertical speed of 1000ft/min. T 888 | For turboprop aircraft >5700 kg in transport CAT, the runway length requirements for landi 889 | During a glide at constant Mach number, the pitch angle of the aeroplane will: 890 | Descending from cruising altitude to ground level at a constant IAS in a headwind, compare 891 | Which speed represents maximum flap extended speed? 892 | The correction factor for landing distance required on a runway with a 1% downslope is: 893 | The speed VLO is defined as: 894 | When calculating approach speeds, the minimum approach speed in the initial approach phase 895 | For a turbojet aeroplane, what is the maximum landing distance for wet runways when the la 896 | Which statement is correct for a descent without engine thrust at maximum lift to drag rat 897 | For a class A jet aircraft, the landing distance required must not exceed: 898 | An aircraft has two certified landing flaps positions, 25° and 35° .
If a pi 899 | For multiengine aircraft weighing less than 5700 kg in normal CAT, the landing distance re 900 | Is there any difference between the vertical speed versus forward speed curves for two ide 901 | The required landing distance available in category A for landing is equal to: 902 | The force exactly opposing and balancing lift in a glide descent is: 903 | Approaching in turbulent wind conditions requires a change in the landing reference speed 904 | The landing distance required will be decreased as a result of: 905 | In high density the landing TAS and distance will be: 906 | An aircraft has a descent gradient of 4.8 percent with the engine inoperative. What is the 907 | An aircraft with a stalling speed of 100kt TAS on the approach should cross the threshold 908 | Pitch angle during decent at a constant mach number will: 909 | For Performance Class A aircraft conducting short landing operations the maximum ground sl 910 | For an aircraft powered by turbo-prop engines the landing distance required at an alternat 911 | The landing field length required for turbojet aeroplanes at the destination (wet conditio 912 | Which of the following will not increase the minimum glide angle relative to the ground : 913 | A jet aeroplane descends with constant Mach number. Which of the following speed limits is 914 | With all engines out, a pilot wants to fly for maximum time. Therefore he has to fly the s 915 | Two identical aircraft, one with a light load and one with a heavy load are in an idle pow 916 | Which of the following statements is correct with regard to the approach to landing climb 917 | When changing from a constant Mach no. descent to a constant IAS descent, the gradient of 918 | Which statement is correct for a descent without engine thrust at maximum lift to drag rat 919 | Displaced threshold is calculated by: 920 | Which wind component are you allowed to use when determining the required runway length fo 921 | A change in aeroplane weight affects: 922 | How does airplane weight influence best angle of glide? 923 | Compared to the landing distance to be available at a destination aerodrome, the minimum d 924 | The landing climb requirement is established to safeguard: 925 | For an aircraft with a tyre pressure of 130 lb/sq.in, the aquaplaning speed on a runway co 926 | Which of the following is true according to JAA regulations for turbo propeller powered ae 927 | Descending at a constant Mach No. in a normal atmosphere: 928 | In wet conditions, what extra percentage over the calculated landing distance must be avai 929 | The effective runway length to be used for landing weight calculation is equal to the runw 930 | During a descent at constant Mach Number, the margin to low speed buffet will: 931 | (Refer to CAP 698 Figure 4-5)
This figure shows the climb limited-take off mass. Take o 932 | (Use CAP 698 figure 4.7)
Find the brake energy limited take-off mass for the following 933 | (Refer to CAP 698 - figure 4-5)
Given:
Aerodrome Pressure Altitude: 4000ft
Ambien 934 | (Refer to CAP 698 figure 4.23)
Find the maximum mass at which a net level-off altitude 935 | (CAP 698 figure 4.5)
Find the maximum take-off mass determined by the climb requirement 936 | What information would you get from the onset buffet graph? 937 | (Refer to CAP698 figure 4.29)
At a pressure altitude of 5000 ft for temperatures below 938 | (Refer to CAP 698 figure 4-9 & V-speeds table)
Given:
Aerodrome Pressure Altitu 939 | (Refer to CAP 698 figure 4-6)
Given:
Aerodrome Pressure Altitude: 4000 ft
Ambient 940 | What is meant by 'Equivalent Weight' in figure 4.27 of CAP 698? 941 | Which of the following documents would be used in determining the minimum acceptable perfo 942 | (CAP 698 figure 4-4)
For a twin engine aircraft, which can use either 5 or 15 degrees f 943 | All turbojet aircraft are certified under JAR... performance class... 944 | (Refer to CAP 698 figure 4.23)
Find the maximum mass at which a net level-off altitude 945 | The minimum acceptable performance requirements for a Class A aeroplane are contained in t 946 | (Refer to CAP 698 figure 4-5)
Consider the take-off performance for the twin jet aeropl 947 | (For this question use CAP 698 Figure 4.5)
With regard to the take-off performance of a 948 | (Refer to CAP 698 figure 4-8 & V-speeds table)
Given:
Aerodrome Pressure Altitu 949 | (Refer to CAP698 figure 4.29)
The climb limited landing mass at an aerodrome with a pre 950 | (Refer to CAP 698 figure 4.23)
What is the reason for the change in temperature lines a 951 | (Refer to CAP 698 figure 4-24)
With regard to the drift down performance of the twin je 952 | (Figure 4.4 in CAP 698)
What is the maximum brake release weight, given there is no slo 953 | (Refer to CAP 698 figure 4-6)
Given:
Aerodrome Pressure Altitude: 6000 ft
Ambient 954 | (For this Question use CAP 698 figure 4-24)
With regard to the drift down performance o 955 | (Refer to CAP 698 figures 4.14)
Given:
Aerodrome Pressure Altitude: 4000 ft
Ambie 956 | (Refer to CAP 698 figure 4.23)
Find the maximum mass at which a net level-off altitude 957 | (Refer to CAP 698 figure 4-7)
Given:
Aerodrome Pressure Altitude: 3000 ft
Ambient 958 | How is wind considered in the take-off performance data of the Aeroplane Operations Manual 959 | (Use CAP 698 figure 4.4)
What minimum balanced field length must be available for take- 960 | (Refer to CAP 698 figure 4-4)
Given:
Aerodrome Pressure Altitude: 4000 ft
Ambient