JAA ATPL Question Bank

010 - AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES 021 - AIRFRAME AND SYSTEMS, ELECTRICS, POWERPLANT, EM. EQUIPMENT 022 - INSTRUMENTATION 031 - MASS AND BALANCE - AEROPLANES 032 - PERFORMANCE - AEROPLANES 033 - FLIGHT PLANNING AND FLIGHT MONITORING 040 - HUMAN PERFORMANCE 050 - METEOROLOGY 061 - GENERAL NAVIGATION 062 - RADIO NAVIGATION 071 - OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES 081 - PRINCIPLES OF FLIGHT - AEROPLANE 091 - VFR COMMUNICATIONS 092 - IFR COMMUNICATIONS

[ATPL TOPICS] INTERNATIONAL AGREEMENTS AND ORGANISATIONS AIRWORTHINESS OF AIRCRAFT AIRCRAFT NATIONALITY AND REGISTRATION MARKS PERSONNEL LICENSING RULES OF THE AIR PROCEDURES FOR AIR NAVIGATION - AIRCRAFT OPERATIONS AIR TRAFFIC SERVICES AERONAUTICAL INFORMATION SERVICE AERODROMES FACILITATION SEARCH AND RESCUE SECURITY AIRCRAFT ACCIDENT INVESTIGATION JAR-FCL NATIONAL LAW

[ATPL SUBTOPICS]

1. The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) establishes 2. An airplane is planning a flight that will require a technical landing in a neighboring st 3. The objectives of the ICAO was ratified by the: 4. The International Civil Organisation (ICAO) was established by the international conventio 5. One of the main objectives of ICAO is to: 6. Which Annex to the Chicago Convention covers dangerous goods carried in aircraft? 7. What is each contracting state of ICAO required to provide? 8. For aircraft flying over the high seas, which rules shall be in force? 9. Annex 14 to the convention on international civil aviation contains SARPS for: 10. The Air Navigation Commission consists of: 11. Annex 17 to the Convention of Chicago covers: 12. Concerning the Chicago Convention of 1944: 13. What is the obligation of a State in the event of non-compliance with an International Sta 14. If a state finds that it is impracticable to comply with an International Standard: 15. Where is the headquarters of ICAO? 16. An aircraft flying over the territory of another state must: 17. The president of the ICAO Council is elected for: 18. Which body of ICAO finalises the Standard and Recommended Practices (SARPS) for submission 19. The 'Standards' contained in the Annexes to the Chicago convention are to be considered: 20. Which of the following is obligating for members of ICAO ? 21. Any contracting state may denounce the Convention of Tokyo by notification addressed to 22. The convention on offences and certain acts committed on board aircraft, is: 23. The aircraft commander, when he has reasonable grounds to believe that a person has commit 24. Any contracting state may denounce the Convention of Montreal by written notificationto th 25. Which of the following is obligating for the members of the ICAO? 26. The Warsaw convention and later ammendments deals with: 27. The second freedom of the air is the: 28. The first freedom of the air is: 29. 'Cabotage' refers to: 30. The convention which deals with offences against penal law, is 31. The convention of Tokyo applies to damage: 32. The international convention defining rules relative to the responsibilities of internatio 33. In which area of Air Traffic Control in Europe does Eurocontrol have a logical and operati 34. Does the liability of a carrier extend to the carriage of mail and cargo as well as passen 35. Why is the 8th freedom of the air particularly applicable to the European Union? 36. Within Europe, certain non-scheduled commercial flights between ECAC States may be carried 37. Which freedom gives the privilege to land for non-traffic purposes in another ICAO contrac 38. What is the status of IATA? 39. The privilege to land for non-traffic purposes, e.g. refueling, maintenance is to followin 40. An aircraft having sustained damage while on the territory of a Contracting State other th 41. The second freedom of the air is the: 42. Which convention makes acts of violence on board, destruction of aircraft in flight and de 43. According to which Convention may an aircraft commander impose measures upon a person comm 44. The privilege to fly across the territory of another participating state without landing i 45. A carrier is liable for damage sustained in the event of death or wounding of a passenger 46. The right to damages is lost if an action is not brought within: 47. Which convention on international air navigation resulted in the agreements concerning the 48. What are the measures by which free movement of aeroplanes, crew, passengers and goods not 49. When an aircraft subjected to an unlawful interference has landed it shall notify by the m 50. What flights are protected by the Prevention of Terrorism Act? 51. What does the International Air Transport Agreement provide for? 52. The privilege of landing in another state for a technical stop only is called: 53. Which convention deals with the unification of rules related to damage caused by aircraft 54. The Warsaw convention and later amendments deals with: 55. The convention signed by the states and moved by a desire to ensure adequate compensation 56. Any person who suffers damage on the surface shall, upon proof only that damage was caused 57. If a person is injured by a part falling from an aircraft flying over the state but regist 58. The Rome Convention and later amendments deals with : 59. The convention signed by the states and moved by a desire to endure adequate compensation 60. Any person who suffers damage on the surface shall, upon proof only that damage was caused 61. If a JAA operator (A) provides an aeroplane and complete crew for lease to another JAA ope 62. The loading limitations shall include: 63. Load factors has the following meaning: 64. According to ICAO Annex 8, a certificate of airworthiness shall be renewed or shall remain 65. When letters are used for the registration mark combinations shall not be used which might 66. The state of design shall ensure that there exists a continuing structural integrity progr 67. The continuing airworthiness of an aircraft, according to ICAO Annex 8, shall be determine 68. When letters are used for the registration mark combinations shall not be used which might 69. The height of the marks on the fuselage (or equivalent structure) and on the vertical tail 70. The height of the marks on lighter than air aircraft other than unmanned free balloons sha 71. When letters are used for registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be 72. When letters are used for registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be 73. The registration mark shall be letters, numbers or a combination of letters and numbers an 74. The common mark shall be selected from the series of symbols included in the radio callsig 75. The assignment of the common mark to a common mark registration authority will be made by: 76. The height of the marks under the wings of heavier than air aircraft shall be at least 77. When the holders of aircraft transport pilot licenses aeroplane and helicopter have passed 78. The licensing authority shall determine whether experience as pilot under instruction in a 79. An applicant holding a private or commercial pilot license aeroplane for the issue of an i 80. An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not 81. In certain circumstances a medical examination may be deferred at the discretion of the li 82. The duration of the period of currency of a medical assessment shall begin on the date: 83. When a contracting state renders valid a license issued by another contracting state the v 84. Type ratings shall be established 85. The holder of a pilot licence when acting as copilot performing under the supervision of t 86. For Commercial Pilot Licence aeroplane the applicant shall have completed in aeroplanes no 87. An applicant for a Commercial Pilot Picence aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes n 88. An applicant for a Commercial Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less th 89. The applicant to exercise the functions of an Instrumental Flight Rating in ____aeroplanes 90. An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not 91. The holder of a pilot's licence should inform the Authority of any illness which they are 92. The International Civil Aviation Convention Annex containing standards and recommended pra 93. The minimum age of obtaining a PPL is: 94. The holder of a pilot licence, when acting as copilot of an aircraft required to be operat 95. The applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot License shall have completed in aeroplanes no 96. The proficiency check of a pilot took place the 15th of April. The validity of the previou 97. When a contracting state renders valid a licence issued by another contracting state, the 98. To be able to execute a public transport flight, the minimum and maximum age (with ATPL) i 99. Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains minimum specifications f 100. If a licence holder is unable to perform the flight crew functions appropriate to that lic 101. An applicant for a Commercial Pilot Licence-aeroplane shall have completed not less than.. 102. An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence-aeroplane shall have completed in aero 103. The prescribed re-examination of a licence holder operating in an area distant from design 104. An applicant for a Commercial Pilot Licence-aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes n 105. The privileges of the holder of a Commercial Pilot Licence-aeroplane shall be: 106. An applicant for a Commercial Pilot Licence shall hold a current 107. The age of an applicant for a Commercial Pilot Licence shall not be less than: 108. Given: AGL= above ground level; AMSL= above mean sea level; FL= flight level
Within un 109. An aircraft shall display, if so equipped, an anti-collision light: 110. A red flare addressed to a flying aircraft means: 111. A double white cross displayed horizontally in the signal area means: 112. An aircraft is considered to overtake another if it approaches the other aircraft from the 113. VMC minima for VFR flights in Class B airspace, above 3050m (10000ft) AMSL, are 114. During an IFR flight in VMC in controlled airspace you experience a two-way radio communic 115. When a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its current flightplan, ATC has to be 116. Where State has not established minimum IFR altitudes, the minimum height of an aircraft a 117. Aircraft wishing to conduct IFR flight within advisory airspace, but not electing to use t 118. The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar indicates that: 119. Your aircraft is intercepted by a military aircraft. The signals given by this aircraft co 120. An aircraft which is being subject to unlawful interference ("hijacked") and is forced to 121. An aircraft manoeuvering in an airport's circuit receives a series of red flashes from the 122. Whilst flying in an aerodrome's traffic circuit, an aircraft receives a series of green fl 123. While taxiing, an aircraft receives from the airport controller the following light signal 124. Which of the following actions shall be taken in case of a controlled flight deviates from 125. An aircraft is flying under IFR in an area where the visibility is unlimited and the sky i 126. While taxiing an aircraft receives the following light signal from the control tower: seri 127. An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately attempt to establish radio c 128. Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit, a VFR flight can not enter or leave 129. Which of the following flights has the greatest priority to land? 130. An aircraft flying above the sea between 4500ft MSL and 9000ft MSL outside controlled airs 131. The VMC minima for an airspace classified as "B" above 10000ft MSL are: 132. The VMC minima for an airspace classified as "G" above 10000ft MSL are: 133. An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft, if equipped with SSR transponder shall, unles 134. Which manoeuvre shall be executed by an intercepting aircraft if the pilot wants to commun 135. Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding level to be maintained by an aircr 136. While on IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from an ATC clearan 137. A controlled flight is requested to inform the appropriate ATC unit whenever the average T 138. Aircraft "A" with an ATC clearance is flying in VMC conditions within a control area. Airc 139. Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome, experie 140. On aerodromes aircraft taxiing on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome shall give way to: 141. A flashing red light from control tower during an approach to land means: 142. If radio contact with the intercepting aircraft is established but communication on a comm 143. If radio communication is established during an interception but communications in a commo 144. A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals: 145. What is Special VFR? 146. How is Flight Visibility defined? 147. When does FLIGHT TIME end? 148. What is a danger area? 149. What is the meaning of AGL? 150. Which of the following defines flight visibility? 151. Who shall have the final authority over the disposition of the aircraft? 152. When operating under Special VFR clearance, the responsibility for remaining clear of obst 153. The commander of a public transport aircraft must ensure that passenger seat belts are sec 154. Who decides whether to fly under IFR or VFR in VMC? 155. The person who has final authority as to the disposition of an aircraft during flight time 156. Which is the correct order of priority: 157. What is the minimum flight altitude permitted over towns and settlements and populated are 158. A controlled flight is requested to inform the appropriate ATC unit whenever the average T 159. An aircraft being towed by night must display: 160. Anti-collision lights on an aircraft must be switched on: 161. When two aircraft are approaching head on, and there is a danger of collision: 162. RPL' s are used for flights with which of the following properties: 163. An aircraft that has the right of way shall maintain its: 164. An aircraft operated on, or in the vicinity of, an aerodrome shall whether or not within a 165. Aircraft taxiing in the manoeuvring area must give way to: 166. Two or more white crosses, displayed on runways and taxiways, indicate that: 167. During initial climb in uncontrolled airspace, the altimeter setting should be: 168. The pre-flight actions for a flight leaving the local aerodrome area, is to include: 169. An airborne flight plan must be submitted: 170. Aircraft on the manoeuvring area have to give way to: 171. Flights at or above the lowest usable flight level or where applicable, above the transiti 172. When two-way radio communication is lost, a pilot should select... on the transponder. 173. On the ground, when two aircraft are approaching head on: 174. Aircraft " A" with an ATC clearance is flying in VMC conditions within a control area. Ai 175. No aircraft shall be flown over the congested area of cities, towns or settlements unless 176. Which type of service is provided in Class F airspace: 177. When is deviation from the rules of the air permitted? 178. One of the following statements about aircraft ground movement is correct: 179. While flying at night another aircraft reports that you are on his 100 degrees relative be 180. Aircraft shall not be flown in formation except: 181. If the ground visibility is reported 1000 m, can a special VFR flight take off from an aer 182. Except when necessary for take-off or landing, a VFR flight over congested areas of cities 183. You are outside controlled airspace on a VFR flight above 3,000ft. Your distance from the 184. In areas where a separation minimum of 1000 ft. is applied up to FL 410, authorisation for 185. When an aircraft is operating in class F airspace below 900 m amsl the minimum horizontal 186. SVFR may be authorized when the ground visibility is not less than: 187. VFR operations can be suspended by which of the following: 188. A special VFR clearance may be obtained from ATC for the following airspaces: 189. Except where necessary for landing and take off, VFR flights are not permitted over conges 190. On a VFR-Flight which of the following cruising levels would you select under the followin 191. On a VFR flight, your magnetic track is 005° , the magnetic heading 355° . Which of the fo 192. An aircraft flying above the sea between 4 500 feet MSL and 9 000 feet MSL outside control 193. The VMC minima for an airspace classified as "G" above 10 000 feet MSL are : 194. Which provisions on a VFR-flight in Class E airspace are CORRECT? 195. VMC minima for VFR flights in Class B airspace, above 3050m (10000 ft) AMSL, are : 196. If you are flying IFR in IMC conditions and you experience a total communications failure, 197. An IFR flight shall not be cleared for an initial approach below the appropriate minimum a 198. When flying on an airway on a heading of 255(M) the correct flight level will be: 199. Given:
AGL = above ground level
AMSL = above mean sea level
FL = flight level wit 200. When flying in IFR you experience a total communications failure in VMC conditions. What s 201. Where no minimum flight altitudes have been established for IFR flights, which statement c 202. An aircraft is flying under Instrument Flight Rules in an area where the visibility is unl 203. If a communication failure is experienced on an IFR flight in IMC, the pilot shall: 204. In areas where a vertical separation of 2000 ft has to be applied above FL 290, which grou 205. An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference ('hijacked') and is forced t 206. A flashing intermittent red light from the ground to an aircraft in the air means: 207. When a pilot raises his arms extended palms facing outwards and moves his hands inwards to 208. While taxiing, an aircraft receives from the airport controller the following light signal 209. A black letter " C" on a yellow background indicates: 210. Which of the following aerodrome ground signals displayed in the signals area indicates th 211. The signal from pilot to marshaller which means - brakes applied - is: 212. What does a red flashing light from the control tower to an aircraft on the manoeuvring ar 213. steady red light beam directed at an aircraft in flight from the Aerodrome Control tower m 214. A series of red flashes sent to an aircraft in flight means: 215. At night you observe ground signals from survivors of a disaster. What do you do to indica 216. A red square panel with a yellow strip along each diagonal, displayed in the signals area 217. To cross lighted stop bars on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome, the following applies: 218. A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals: 219. Your aircraft is intercepted by a military aircraft. The signals given by this aircraft co 220. An aircraft equipped with SSR transponder which is intercepted by another aircraft shall i 221. After an aircraft has been intercepted in flight, the intercepted aircraft is rocking its 222. An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft, if equipped with SSR transponder shall, unles 223. In areas where a vertical separation minimum (VSM) of 300 m (1000 ft) is applied between F 224. Above flight level FL 290 (non-RVSM) the vertical flight separation between aircraft on th 225. What does the abbreviation OIS mean? 226. What does the abbreviation DER mean? 227. The MSA, which must be established around a navigation facility, is in general valid withi 228. PANS-OPS means: 229. The document that specifies the recommendations for instrument procedures is called... 230. What is defined as the portion of a flight in which the aircraft descends below 1000 ft ab 231. Which of the following defines transition altitude? 232. The Transition Level: 233. The " estimated total time" in block 16 of a VFR flight plan is the estimated time: 234. A radial is: 235. A circling approach is: 236. What is the meaning of MEHT? 237. What does the abbreviation DER mean? 238. OCH for a precision approach is defined as: 239. What is a STAR? 240. When does night exist? 241. What is the meaning of DER: 242. A visual approach is: 243. What does the abbreviation OIS mean? 244. The approach categories of aircraft are based upon: 245. Runway visual range is reported when it falls below: 246. The term used to describe the visual phase of flight after completing an instrument approa 247. In a straight departure, the initial departure track is of the alignment of the runway cen 248. In an instrument departure procedure the minimum obstacle clearance at the departure end o 249. We can distinguish two types of departure routes. During a straight departure the initial 250. If in an instrument departure procedure the track to be followed by the aeroplane is publi 251. In general, which is the main factor that dictates the design of an instrument departure p 252. A four-engine aeroplane is about to take-off from an airport where poor weather conditions 253. As a rule, while establishing the departure procedures, the operator reckons that aeroplan 254. Turning departures provide track guidance within: 255. During an omni-directional departure, what height are you required to climb to before turn 256. The main factor that dictates in general the design of an instrument departure procedure i 257. For a turning departure turns may be specified at: 258. In the event of a delay of 30 minutes in excess of the estimated EOBT for a controlled fli 259. What is a low visibility take-off? 260. A public transport aircraft shall not take-off unless the following minima for the departu 261. Departure routes are based upon track guidance acquired within: 262. The PDG is made up of: 263. When constructing a turning area departure the temperature used is: 264. For an instrument departure (SID) what is the procedure design gradient (PDG)? 265. Obstacle clearance for an ILS approach is based on the assumption that the pilot does not 266. In the primary area, the obstacle clearance for the initial approach segment provides at l 267. The primary area of an instrument approach segment is: 268. During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum obstacle clearan 269. Normally, the maximum descent gradient, applicable in the final approach segment to ensure 270. Who establishes the OCA/H (Obstacle Clearance Altitude/Height) for an approach procedure? 271. If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, it is expe 272. A circling approach is: 273. When the visual manoeuvring (circling) area has been established the obstacle clearance al 274. It is permissible to eliminate from consideration a particular sector where a prominent ob 275. On a non-precision approach a so-called "straight-in-approach" is considered acceptable, i 276. If contact is lost with the runway on the downwind leg of a circling manoeuvre, what actio 277. During an instrument approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) of the initial approac 278. For a category I precision approach, the decision height cannot be lower than: 279. In general, during a straight-in approach, the MDH cannot be below: 280. The width of the corridor around a specified arrival route is: 281. Minimum sector altitudes are determined by the inbound radial in relation to the IAF. Thes 282. Unless otherwise indicated, the missed approach procedures published on the IAC charts are 283. A "precision approach" is a direct instrument approach... 284. During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum obstacle clearan 285. During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum obstacle clearan 286. The term used to discribe the visual phase of flight after completing an instrument approa 287. In a precision approach (ILS), the final approach segment begins at the: 288. What action should be taken if contact is lost with the aerodrome on the down wind leg? 289. In an instrument approach procedure, the segment in which alignment and descent for landin 290. The protection areas associated with instrument approach procedure are determined with the 291. Under which conditions may an aircraft on a straight-in-VOR approach continue its descend 292. A turn executed by the aircraft during the initial approach between the end of the outboun 293. If a stepdown fix is established on the final approach track, a descend shall be made so a 294. In the ILS-approach, the OCA is referred to: 295. A manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a designated track followed by a turn in the 296. You are on an IFR flight executing a circling approach. A descend below the MDA should not 297. In an offset entry into an omnidirectional racetrack procedure, the time on the 30° offset 298. Where does the initial phase of a missed approach procedure end? 299. During circling-to-land (with or without prescribed flight tracks), the maximum allowed ai 300. Which is the obstacle clearance in the primary area of the intermediate approach segment i 301. In an approach procedure, a descent or climb conducted in a holding pattern is called: 302. In a precision approach (ILS), generally glide path intersection occurs at heights above r 303. How many separate segments has an instrument approach procedure? 304. Where does the initial approach segment in an instrument approach procedure commence? 305. Which is the obstacle clearance in the primary area of the initial approach segment in an 306. In a procedure turn (45°/180°), a 45°turn away from the outbound track is performed from t 307. In a procedure turn (45°/180°), a 45°turn away from the outbound track is performed from t 308. In a precision approach (ILS), obstacle clearance surfaces assume that the pilot does not 309. In a precision approach (ILS), the OCA or OCH values are based among other standard condit 310. Which are the phases of a missed approach procedure? 311. Normally missed approach procedures are based on a nominal missed approach climb gradient 312. Where an operational advantage can be obtained, an ILS procedure may include a dead reckon 313. Two aeroplanes are approaching to land on parallel runways on independent parallel approac 314. Where does the intermediate missed approach segment end? 315. For precision approaches, the Final Approach Fix (FAF) is set at a specified distance from 316. What is the lowest possible MDH for a VOR/DME non-precision approach? 317. Under what circumstances would an ILS glide path in excess of 3° be used? 318. The climb gradient of a missed approach can be reduced to: 319. One of the conditions to descent below the MDA on a circling approach is: 320. Where does the initial section of a missed approach procedure end? 321. For a non-precision approach, the final approach fix (FAF) is set at a specified distance 322. When determining the OCA for a precision approach, obstacle height is referenced to: 323. A visual manoeuvring (circling) area may be sectored to exclude a prominent obstacle. When 324. When constructing a turning missed approach the pilot reaction time taken into account is: 325. The initial missed approach segment: 326. Normally, a procedure will be designed to provide protected airspace and obstacle clearanc 327. The obstacle clearance surfaces of an ILS approach assumes a pilot localiser accuracy of: 328. Where a final approach fix (FAF) is specified for a non-precision approach procedure, what 329. During the arrival and initial segments of an instrument procedure, what is the obstacle c 330. For an ASR, within 40 nm of the radar, fix tolerance is assumed to be: 331. When constructing an instrument approach, the overall tolerance of an intersecting facilit 332. When performing a circling approach, descent below MDA/H should not be made until: 333. What action should be taken if contact is lost with the aerodrome on the downwind leg? 334. The ILS glide path is normally intercepted between: 335. Where does the final approach segment for a precision approach start? 336. When parallel runway operations are in progress and reduced radar separation of 3 NM betwe 337. Where ends the initial missed approach segment? 338. What is the normal procedure design climb gradient for a missed approach procedure? 339. Which of the following approach speed ranges (Vat) is applicable for Category B aircraft? 340. What is the lowest possible MDH for an ILS (without glideslope) non-precision approach? 341. What is the lowest possible MDH for a VOR non-precision approach? 342. If, during a visual circling, visual reference is lost while circling to land from an inst 343. The factors considered in the calculations of DA /DH are: 344. The NTZ extends from... to... 345. What is the obstacle clearance in the intermediate approach segment? 346. Who is establishing the aerodrome operational minima for instrument approaches? 347. What is the primary area during the intermediate section of an instrument approach? 348. The protection areas associated with instrument approach procedures are determined with th 349. In the ILS-approach, the OCA is referenced to: 350. Were an operational advantage can be obtained, an ILS procedure may include a dead reckoni 351. Obstacle clearance for an ILS approach is based on the assumption that the pilot does not 352. If contact is lost with the runway on the down-wind leg of a circling manoeuvre, what acti 353. During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum obstacle clearan 354. In relation to the three entry sectors, the entry into the holding pattern shall be accord 355. How far beyond the boundary of the holding area extends the buffer area? 356. Standard airway holding pattern below 14000ft? 357. Related to the three entry sectors in a holding pattern, there is a zone of flexibility on 358. What will be your action if you can not comply with a standard holding pattern? 359. Entering a holding pattern at FL 110 with a jet aircraft, which will be the maximum speed? 360. What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern above FL 140? 361. In a holding pattern all turns are to be made at a: 362. What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern up to FL 140? 363. You have received holding instructions for a radio fix. The published holding procedure is 364. Unless otherwise published or instructed by ATC, all turns after initial entry into the ho 365. In a standard holding pattern turns are made: 366. You are flying inbound on radial 232 towards VOR EDI. When you are required to hold overhe 367. You are required to carry out an offset joining procedure to enter a holding pattern. What 368. In a holding pattern all turns should be made: 369. What is the rate of turn/bank angle required for turns in a holding pattern? 370. In a holding pattern, the pilot should attempt to maintain the... by making allowance for 371. A holding pattern is established on inbound radial 000 degrees to VOR NTM. You are approac 372. What obstacle clearance is guaranteed at a range of 5 nm from the edge of the holding area 373. Which is the normal still air outbound time in a holding pattern? 374. When holding at FL110, what is the normal outbound leg time? 375. What is the minimum obstacle clearance guaranteed at the edge of the buffer area (5 nm out 376. In a holding pattern, turns are to be made: 377. An expected approach time is given: 378. When you are asked to hold on a non standard holding fix (eg en route) what direction are 379. Standard airway holding pattern below 14 000 ft ? 380. During flight through the transition layer the vertical position of the aircraft should be 381. Transition from altitude to flight level, and vice-versa is done: 382. The transition level: 383. Which of the following cruising levels would you select under the following conditions: Tr 384. In the vicinity of an aerodrome that is going to be used by the aircraft the vertical posi 385. At what moment during the approach should the reported airfield altimeter setting be set? 386. The vertical position of an aircraft at or below the transition altitude will be reported: 387. The transition altitude of an aerodrome should not be below: 388. The pilot of a departing aircraft flying under IFR shall change the altimeter setting from 389. The vertical position of an aircraft at or above the transition level will be reported 390. The transition level: 391. With QFE set a serviceable altimeter will indicate: 392. In the standard atmosphere FL150 is equivalent to: 393. A pre-flight altimeter check should be carried out: 394. Flight above the transition altitude is referenced to: 395. In the standard atmosphere FL35 is equivalent to: 396. Which of the following is true concerning the Transition Altitude? 397. Below and at the transition altitude, the altimeter setting should be: 398. During flight below the transition altitude, the altimeter of an aircraft shall be set to: 399. The pilot of a departing aircraft flying under IFR shall change the altimeter setting from 400. What will be the transponder mode and code for radio communication failure? 401. Which of the following correctly lists special purpose codes that are to be used in conjun 402. When acknowledging mode/code setting instructions, pilots shall: 403. Pilots shall not operate the SSR special position indicator (IDENT) feature unless: 404. When an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, the pilot in command shall indicat 405. When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C equipment, the pilot: 406. When an aircraft carries a serviceable transponder, the pilot shall operate the transponde 407. Your transponder code assigned by ATC is 5320. In flight, in case of radio communications 408. The pilot of an aircraft losing two-way communication shall set the transponder to Mode A 409. When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C transponder, the pilot shall continuously ope 410. During a pre-flight a SSR transponder is found to be inoperative and immediate repair is n 411. What SSR squawk indicates communications failure? 412. The SSR code to indicate communications failure is: 413. An aircraft equipped with an SSR transponder is expected to operate the transponder on Mod 414. The pilot of an aircraft losing two-way communications shall set the transponder to Mode A 415. When an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, the pilot-in-command shall indicat 416. When an aircraft has sustained damage, the aircraft shall be allowed to resume its flight, 417. Air Traffic Service unit means: 418. A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the earth is: 419. A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth to a specified upper 420. Aerodrome traffic is: 421. Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains international standards 422. An information issued by a meteorological watch office concerning the occurence or expecte 423. Regarding Aerodrome Flight Information (AFIS): 424. ATS airspaces where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traf 425. Except in some special cases the establishement of change-over points should be limited to 426. A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as C has to maintain the follow 427. Flight Information Region (FIR) is an airspace within which the following services are pro 428. Control Area (CTA) is defined as follows: 429. The transfer of an aircraft from one ATC unit to another is done: 430. An air traffic control unit: 431. Required Navigation Performance (RNP) shall be prescribed 432. Where an upper flight information region (UIR) is established, the procedures applicable t 433. An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted and receive flight information service if 434. Concerning to RNP (Required Navigation Performance) types, the indication RNP 4, represent 435. A Control Zone shall extend laterally to at least: 436. A lower limit of a Control Area shall be established at a height above the ground level or 437. The units providing Air Traffic Services are: 438. The Approach Control Service is an air traffic control service 439. Air trafic control sevice is provided for the purpose of: 440. To perform a VFR flight in airspace classification E 441. Which statement is correct? 442. What is the speed limit (IAS) in an airspace class E? 443. The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as C, when flying belo 444. The speed limitation for VFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as C, when flying belo 445. An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air tr 446. The speed limitation for both IFR flights and VFR flights inside ATS airspace classified a 447. Air traffic services unit clocks and other time recording devices shall be checked as nece 448. The VMC minima for a VFR flight inside an ATS airspace classified as B, is: 449. A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as B has to maintain the follow 450. An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air tr 451. Which condition is requested so that an aerodrome may be considered controlled? 452. An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted and all flights are subject to air 453. An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted are subject to Air Traffic Control 454. An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all participating IFR flights rec 455. The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as E, when flying belo 456. An aircraft is maintaining FL 150 within airspace class C. Another aircraft below at FL 14 457. The longitudinal separation minima between aircraft departed from the same aerodrome and f 458. The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level w 459. The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level w 460. The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level w 461. Area Control Centers issue clearances for the purpose of: 462. What is the shortest distance in a sequence for landing between a "Heavy" aircraft preceed 463. Clearances will be issued by an ATC unit for the purpose of: 464. You receive an IFR enroute clearance starting: Clearance expires at 0920. What does it mea 465. The longitudinal separation minima between aircraft departed from the same aerodrome and f 466. The longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME, and each aircraft "on trac 467. When an aircraft will pass through the level of another aircraft on the same track, the fo 468. ATIS broadcast 469. Whenever ATIS is provided, the preparation and dissemination of the ATIS message shall be 470. Whenever ATIS is provided, the broadcast information shall be updated 471. The ATIS broadcast message should, whenever practicable, not exceed 472. ATIS broadcast messages containing departure and arrival information should include cloud 473. When are ATIS broadcasts updated? 474. Flight Information Service shall be provided to aircraft in order to avoid collision hazar 475. Flight Information Service provided to flights shall include the provision of information 476. At radio communications, "Distress" differs from "Urgency" because in the first case 477. When it becomes apparent that an aircraft is in difficulty, the decision to initiate the a 478. The Alerting Service is provided by: 479. The phases related to an aircraft in emergency or believed in emergency are: 480. When an aircraft is experiencing difficulties, triggering of the alert phase is the respon 481. When on a RNP1 route is indicated A342 Z, means that all turns shall be made within the al 482. Alert phase is defined as follows: 483. When on a RNP1 route is indicated B235 Y, means that all turns shall be made within the al 484. The pilot in command of an aircraft
1 must comply immediately to all instructions recei 485. If radio communication failure is experienced on an IFR flight in IMC, generally the pilot 486. A flightplan shall be submitted prior to departure for a controlled at least: 487. The period of validity for take-off slots assigned by CEU (flow control center): 488. The rule governing flight over water for a single engined aeroplane engaged in the public 489. A strayed aircraft is: 490. "ESSENTIAL TRAFFIC" is that controlled flight to which the provision of separation by ATC 491. When, in airspace where VFR are permitted, the pilot in command of an IFR flight wishes to 492. A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals: 493. In the event of a delay of a controlled flight, the submitted flightplan should be amended 494. The position reports shall contain the following elements of information in the order list 495. Which letter is used in a flightplan to indicate that the flight commences in accordance w 496. Which letter is used in a flightplan to indicate that the flight commences in accordance w 497. A pilot receiving an IFR clearance from ATC should: 498. Which is the content of section 2 of Air-Report (AIREP)? 499. A Special Air Report comprises a number of sections. In section 1 the pilot fills in: 500. Change from IFR to VFR will always take place: 501. The planned cruising speed for the first leg or all the cruising portion of the flight mus 502. The "estimated total time" in block 16 of a VFR flightplan is the estimated time: 503. The letter "L" is written in the wake turbulence box of a flightplan form when the maximum 504. If no ICAO identifier has been attributed to an alternate airport (box 16) of a flightplan 505. In the event of a delay for an uncontrolled flight for which a flightplan has been filed, 506. Who is responsible for an ATC clearance to be safe in respect to terrain clearance? 507. Above FL 290 the vertical flight separation between aircraft on the same direction is: 508. Track separation between aircraft using the same NDB shall be applied requiring the aircra 509. Track separation between aircraft using the same FIX shall be applied requiring the aircra 510. If an ATC clearance is not suitable to the pilot in command of an aircraft: 511. The "VMC and own separation" ATC clearance is used for a controlled flight to cross the le 512. Normally all turns, which are requested by a radar controller have to be executed as: 513. What are the controlled IFR separation methods applied by ATC? 514. The vertical IFR separation minimum being applied by ATC within a controlled airspace belo 515. The vertical IFR separation minimum being applied by ATC within a controlled airspace abov 516. Flying exactly on your current flightplan route, you receive and acknowledge the following 517. Longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME for aircraft at the same cruisi 518. A "RNAV" distance based separation minimum may be used at the time the level is crossed, p 519. A VFR flight constitutes essential traffic to other VFR flights, when operating in control 520. One minute separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on tracks 521. Two minutes separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on the sa 522. The separation method whereby the vertical and horizontal separation may be reduced till a 523. What is the minimum vertical separation between aircraft flying IFR below FL 290? 524. Cruising level IFR during cruise within controlled airspace shall be given as flight level 525. Changing of flight rules from IFR to VFR is possible 526. Aircraft flying along the same track may be separated by DME-distances from the same DME a 527. Track separation between aircraft using the same VOR shall be applied requiring the aircra 528. Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when 529. Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when 530. Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when 531. Whenever unlawful interference with an aircraft is suspected, and where automatic distinct 532. Repetitive flight plans (RPL's) shall not be used for flights operated regularly on the sa 533. The longitudinal separation minima based on DME, and each aircraft "on track" uses DME sta 534. Which procedure you follow if during an IFR flight in VMC you have two way communication f 535. When the Mach number technique (MNT) is being applied, and the preceeding aircraft shall m 536. During a take-off in IMC conditions with low ceiling the pilot should contact departure co 537. At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in the 538. A minimum vertical separation shall be provided until aircraft are established inbound on 539. At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in the 540. If an arriving aircraft is making a straight in approach a departing aircraft may take off 541. If the crew on an arriving aircraft approaching a controlled aerodrome will report "field 542. For controlled traffic that shall be separated in the vicinity of an airport, separation m 543. Which statement is correct? During a "visual approach" in controlled airspace (class C): 544. The EAT has to be transmitted to the pilot as soon as possible, in case the expected delay 545. A so called "Visual Approach" can be performed: 546. "Time Approach Procedure" is used as necessary to expedite the approach of a number of arr 547. The minimum sector altitude provides 300 metres obstacle clearance within how many miles r 548. Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that a no tr 549. At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in the 550. An approaching aircraft may descent below the MSA if: 551. When independent parallel approaches are being conducted to parallel runways and vectoring 552. Dependent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that: the miss 553. For an IFR flight to an airport equipped with navaids, the estimated time of arrival is th 554. During an arrival procedure under an IFR flight plan in VMC conditions, traffic avoidance 555. A minimum radar separation shall be provided until aircraft are established inbound on the 556. When independent parallel approaches are being conducted and vectoring to intercept the IL 557. Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that: 558. A separation minimum shall be applied between a LIGHT or MEDIUM aircraft and a HEAVY aircr 559. When a runway is 2000 metres in length, and taxi holding positions have not been establish 560. Which statement regarding approach control service is correct? 561. Which statement regarding aerodrome control service is correct? 562. According to international agreements wind direction shall be adjusted to the local variat 563. A braking action given by ATS of 0.25 and below is: 564. Lights on and in the vicinity of aerodromes may be turned off, provided that they can be a 565. In order to meet wake turbulence criteria, for arriving aircraft and using timed approache 566. A separation minimum shall be applied between a LIGHT or MEDIUM aircraft and a HEAVY aircr 567. In order to meet the wake turbulence criteria, what minimum separation should be applied w 568. Special VFR flights may be authorized to operate locally within a control zone when the gr 569. Flight information service shall be provided to all aircraft which are likely to be affect 570. What is the minimum wake turbulence separation criteria when a LIGHT aircraft is taking of 571. Alerting service shall be provided: 572. The radar controller shall not request the pilot to adjust the speed where the aircraft ha 573. The following minimum radar separation shall be provided between aircraft on the same loca 574. The minimum radar separation to be provided to aircraft established on the localizer cours 575. The tolerance value used to determine that mode C derived level information displayed to t 576. Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, the horizontal radar separat 577. The criterion, which shall be used to determine that a specific level is occupied by an ai 578. An aircraft is considered to be maintaining its assigned level as long as the SSR mode C d 579. An aircraft in climb or descent is considered to have crossed a level when the SSR mode C 580. The radar separation minimum may be reduced but not below: 581. Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, the radar controller should 582. An aircraft making a radar approach should be advised to consider executing a missed appro 583. When vectoring an aircraft to intercept the localizer course, the final vector furnished s 584. Subject to conditions specified by the appropriate ATS authority, a radar controller may r 585. The surveillance radar approach shall be terminated at a distance of 2NM from the touchdow 586. Radar controlled aircraft on intermediate or final approach may be requested to make minor 587. Radar identification of a departing aircraft can be achieved if a radar blip is observed w 588. When the transponder appears to be unserviceable prior to departure and restorage is impos 589. Except when prescribed in procedures or made possible by agreements, aircraft under radar- 590. During radar-control, a "radar-controller" shall issue a missed-approach instruction, in c 591. The air traffic control unit has reported "radar contact". What does that mean to the pilo 592. When a surveillance radar approach is to be continued to the threshold of the runway trans 593. Clearance to land or any alternative clearance received from the non-radar controller shou 594. An aircraft making a radar approach should be directed to consider executing a missed appr 595. What is the maximum speed adjustment that a pilot should be requested to make when under r 596. When a RADAR operators says the following to an aircraft: "fly heading 030", the pilot mus 597. When conducting a surveillance radar approach, the radar controller shall terminate the su 598. Which code shall be used on Mode "A" to provide recognition of an aircraft subjected to un 599. Upon intercepting the assigned radial, the controller advises you that you are on the airw 600. An aircraft making a radar approach should be directed to execute a missed approach if no 601. What does the ATC term "radar contact" signify? 602. Where a "Secondary Surveillance Radar" (SSR) is not available, radar identification may be 603. When "Secondary Radar" is used, an aircraft may be identified by one of the following proc 604. One of the functions ensured by a radar control unit for the provision of approach control 605. Except otherwise established by the appropriate ATS authority a Surveillance Radar Approac 606. When radar identification of aircraft has been achieved, ATC unit shall: 607. The Air Traffic Control Service: do not prevent collisions with terrain. 608. Which code shall be used on mode "A" to provide recognition of an emergency aircraft? 609. One of the functions ensured by a radar control unit for the provision of approach control 610. The primary duty provided by a radar unit is: 611. What is meant when departure control instructs you to "resume own navigation" after you ha 612. Detailed description of meteorological information provided at the aerodrome and an indica 613. A checklist of AIP supplements currently in force shall be issued at intervals of: 614. Which of the following is information that is not given in AIP approach and landing charts 615. An integrated aeronautical information package consists of the following elements 616. The identification of each prohibited, restricted and danger area shall be composed by: 617. In order to avoid confusion, the identification numbers given to each prohibited area, res 618. Temporary changes on specifications for AIP supplements of long duration and information o 619. Operationaly significant changes to the AIP shall be published in accordance with: 620. A checklist of NOTAM currently in force shall be issued at the AFTN at intervals of: 621. The ASHTAM provides information on the status of activity of a volcano when a change in ac 622. The contents of Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP) are: 623. The SIGMET service, is in the AIP, in the following part: 624. In which chapter of the AIP can you find a list with "location indicators"? 625. The informations on holding, approach and departure procedures, are found in the following 626. The closure of a runway for a year, because of maintenance, will be published: 627. An AIRAC is: 628. Select the acronym corresponding to the following definition: an special NOTAM series noti 629. The system notifying in advance the circumstances requiring important changes in the metho 630. The temporary, long-term modification (3 months or more) and the short-term extensive or g 631. The informations concerning charges for aerodromes/heliports and Air Navigation Services a 632. A notice providing information on Rules of the Air, Traffic Services and Air Navigation Pr 633. A notice containing information concerning flight safety, air navigation, technical, admin 634. In which section of AIP are contained information elements relating to prohibited, restric 635. In which section of AIP are contained information elements to refueling facilities and lim 636. In which section of the AIP are contained information elements relating to areas and/or ro 637. Which information is not included in Instrument Approach Charts (IAC) in the AIP? 638. Each contracting state shall provide an Aeronautical Information Service (AIS) in its terr 639. Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains minimum specifications f 640. "Clearway" is a defined rectangular area established to: 641. According to the "Aerodrome Reference Code", the "Code Letter E" shall identify an aircraf 642. The "Aerodrome Reference Code" is a code composed of two elements which are related to the 643. According with the "Aerodrome Reference Code" the "Code number 4" shall identify an aircra 644. The STOPWAY is a defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of take-off run availab 645. "ASDA" (Acceleration Stop Distance Available) is: 646. "Instrument runways" are the following runways intended for the operation of aircraft usin 647. In the "Aerodrome Reference Code" the code element 2 shall identify: 648. "TODA" take-off distance available is: 649. Which "code letter" shall be chosen to identify a taxiway to be used by an aircraft having 650. Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies dimensions of aerodromes are codes 651. "Code letter D" shall be chosen to identify a taxiway used by aircraft having an outer mai 652. The light shown by an "Aerodrome Identification Beacon" at a land aerodrome shall be: 653. Taxiway edge lights shall be: 654. In the case of parallel runways, each runway designation number shall be supplemented: 655. In the "PAPI" system the pilot during an approach will see the two units nearest the runwa 656. Runway threshold identification lights, when provided, should be: 657. In the "VASIS", how many light units are in each wing bar? 658. In a precision approach category 1, lighting system, the single, two and three light sourc 659. What is the lentgh of an approach lighting system of a precision-approach runway CAT2? 660. What is a "barrette"? 661. A precision approach runway CAT2 is an instrument runway served by ILS and visual aids int 662. When a fixed-distance marking has to be provided this marking shall commence at: 663. Runway-lead-in lighting should consist: 664. Runway end lights shall be: 665. Aerodromes signs should be in the following configuration: 666. The "PAPI" shall consist of: 667. Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies dimensions of aerodromes is a speci 668. Which of the following alternatives describe the complete CAT 1 ("Calvert") type of approa 669. Runway threshold lights shall be: 670. In a precision approach category 1 lighting system, the centerline and crossbar lights sha 671. "3-BAR VASIS", "PAPI" and "T-VASIS" shall be provided for aircraft having eye-to-wheel hei 672. Taxiway centerline lights other than an exit taxiway shall be: 673. How many red lights must a pilot see, whose aircraft, in final approach, is following a no 674. Runway edge lights excepted in the case of a displaced threshold shall be: 675. The abbreviation PAPI stands for: 676. High intensity obstacle lights should be: 677. Low intensity obstacle lights on mobile objects shall be: 678. Low intensity obstacle lights on fixed objects shall be: 679. The runway edge lights shall be: 680. The aerodrome category for rescue and fire fighting is based on: 681. Which of the following is not considered when establishing Aerodrome Operating Minima? 682. A precision approach runway CAT II is an instrument runway served by ILS and visual aids i 683. A runway may be contaminated by frozen water deposits. What are the three states of frozen 684. For planning purposes, an aerodrome is categorised by aerodrome reference code. This code 685. Objects located beyond 15 km radius of the aerodrome are normally considered to be obstacl 686. " A defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of take-off run available prepared a 687. According with the " Aerodrome Reference Code" the " Code number 4" shall identify an ai 688. The abbreviation PAPI stands for: 689. Category II operation is: 690. " Code letter D" shall be chosen to identify a taxiway used by aircraft having an outer m 691. According to the " Aerodrome Reference Code" , the " Code Letter E" shall identify an air 692. Airfield reference code E is used for aircraft with a maximum wingspan of: 693. Do all runways require centreline markings? 694. Which of the following correctly defines aerodrome operating minima? 695. A detailed description of the visual ground aids can be found in ICAO Annex... 696. Where an operator establishes an aerodrome operating minima, the minima: 697. A volume of airspace extending upwards and outwards from an inner portion of the strip to 698. Which of the following systems describes an abbreviated precision approach path indicator: 699. Fixed distance markings on certain precision approach runways are: 700. Alternate yellow/green centreline lights of a taxiway indicate: 701. When taxiing on a surface with white markings, you are rolling on a: 702. What is the colour of runway edge lights? 703. An aiming point marking shall be provided at the approach end of a paved instrument runway 704. What colour are apron markings? 705. Runway centre line lights shall be fixed lights showing variable... from the threshold to 706. What colour is an aerodrome beacon at a land aerodrome? 707. " 3-BAR AVASIS" , " PAPI" and " T-VASIS" shall be provided for aircraft having eye-to-wh 708. Which of the following describes a location sign? 709. When on or close to the approach slope, the wing bar of a PAPI shows: 710. Configuration A runway guard lights shall be provided at each taxiway/runway intersection 711. Which of the following describes threshold lights? 712. What lighting is required for runways to be used for take-off in an operating minimum belo 713. Which of the following is not a mandatory instruction sign: 714. Are runway edge lights required to show at all angles in azimuth (omni-directionally)? 715. The number of stripes on each side of the centre line of a runway which has a width of 45m 716. What is the principle requirement for a signals area on an aerodrome? 717. Where on a taxiway is the runway vacated sign located? 718. Mandatory instructions signs on an aerodrome shall have the following colours: 719. Taxiway markings and aircraft stand markings are: 720. Taxiway centre line lights other than an exit taxiway shall be: 721. In a precision approach category I lighting system, the centre line and crossbar lights sh 722. Where a runway has a displaced threshold, what colour are the edge lights between the begi 723. The pre-threshold area of a runway fit for use by aircraft as a stopway, but not for norma 724. How is a paved pre-threshold area which is greater than 60 m in length but not suitable fo 725. Rescue and fire fighting (emergency) services provision is categorised according to physic 726. What colour are emergency vehicles painted that are used on the manoeuvring area of an aer 727. Crash/Rescue (emergency) services provision is categorised according to physical character 728. Where a parking bay is provided at an aerodrome suitable for the parking of an aircraft wh 729. The declared take-off run available at an aerodrome is: 730. Regarding declared airfield distances the ASDA is: 731. What is the length of an approach lighting system of a precision-approach runway CAT II : 732. The ICAO Annex which deals with entry and departure of cargo and other articles on interna 733. The ICAO Annex which deals with entry and departure of persons and their baggage in intern 734. In case of aircraft registered in other Contracting States, which are not engaged in sched 735. A contracting state which continues to require the presentation of a cargo manifest shall, 736. An aircraft which is not engaged in scheduled international air services and which is maki 737. Which one of the statements is correct? 738. An aircraft flying to another contracting state: 739. Contracting states shall not require the authorized agent or pilot-in-command to deliver t 740. In cases where a visitor travelling by air holds a valid passport and no visa is required 741. When desinsecting is required by a Contracting State as a publich health measure, the desi 742. The obligation of a carrier to transport any person away from the territory of a Contracti 743. When a person is found inadmissible and is returned to the operator for transport away fro 744. The documents for entry and departure of aircraft: 745. Except in special circumstances determined by the public authorities concerned, when a pas 746. Contracting states shall carry out the handling, forward and clearance of airmail and shal 747. Unaccompanied baggage carried by air shall be cleared under the procedure applicable to: 748. When cargo, unaccompanied baggage or stores are not unladen at their intended destination 749. On a general declaration form, the following data can be found: 750. What is the purpose of a Crew Member's Certificate (CMC)? 751. What documentation is required by persons travelling by air, for entry into a state? 752. Which ICAO annex is dedicated to facilitate the passage of passengers at the aerodromes? 753. The crew member certificate (CMC) shall be accepted by each Contracting State for identifi 754. Contracting states shall carry out the handling, forwarding and clearance of airmail and s 755. Except in special circumstances determined by the public authorities concerned, when a pas 756. The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of persons and their baggage in intern 757. The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of cargo and other articles on interna 758. The units responsible for promoting efficient organization of search and rescue service ar 759. Three aircraft, (1), (2) and (3) arrive successively at ten minute intervals, overhead the 760. What is the meaning of the showed symbol in the ground air visual signal code for use by s 761. What is the meaning of the showed symbol in the ground air visual signal code for use by r 762. Which of the following is NOT an international distress frequency? 763. An aircraft is flying over a mountainous region in which a search is being carried out to 764. At night an aircraft observes a luminous signal requesting help. To indicate that he has r 765. Using the ground-air visual signal code, the letter similar to the symbol meaning "REQUIRE 766. Using the ground-air visual code the symbol meaning "we have found all personnel" is: 767. The color identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing s 768. The color identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing s 769. The color identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing s 770. The color identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing s 771. Using the ground-air visual code the letter(s) similar to the symbol meaning "REQUIRE ASSI 772. The ground-air visual code illustrated means: 773. COSPAS-SARSAT is: 774. A situation in which apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft. To which emergen 775. Search and Rescue services within the territory of ICAO contracting states are provided: 776. The different emergency phases (in correct order) are: 777. Which of the following statements describes the Alert Phase (ALERFA)? 778. DETRESFA is where: 779. Contracting States shall establish a rescue co-ordination centre: 780. A Rescue Unit is: 781. An aircraft is in emergency when: 782. " A situation wherein apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupant 783. Which of the following statements regarding Alerting service is correct? 784. Whenever a distress signal and/or message or equivalent transmission is intercepted by the 785. An operator shall not operate an aeroplane certified to JAR25, across an area in which sea 786. What colour streamer identifies food and water dropped to survivors? 787. The colour identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing 788. What is the meaning of V seen on the ground in the vicinity of an aircraft crash site? 789. Survival equipment, dropped by SAR and containing food and water will be packed in contain 790. Three aircraft, (1), (2) and (3), arrive successively at ten minute intervals, overhead th 791. You are flying over the NAT region when you intercept a distress call. You record the mess 792. The ground - air visual code for: " REQUIRE ASSISTANCE" is: 793. Which of the following signals is a distress signal? 794. You are flying in a mountainous region and you see the letter X on the ground. What does t 795. Which signal indicates 'operations complete'? 796. In the ground/air emergency code the symbol X means: 797. In the ground to air emergency signalling code, the code symbol X means: 798. What is the meaning of SAR signal "N" when used by survivors on the ground: 799. Survivors of an aircraft accident, requiring medical assistance will display the following 800. The ICAO Annex 17 comprises rules in order to establish security measures for passengers: 801. A State shall take adequate measures for the safety of passengers and crew of an aircraft 802. When an aircraft subject to unlawful interference has landed it shall notify by the most e 803. Each State of ICAO Annex 17 shall ensure the establishment of a security programme, 804. Definition of "Security, the ICAO Annex 17", is a combination of measures: 805. A State shall provide assistance to an aircraft subjected to an act of unlawful seizure. T 806. For the transport of potentially disruptive passengers some supplementary safeguards are t 807. The movement area of an airfield, the adjacent lands and buildings or the parts of them wi 808. Referring to the operational aspects in the unlawful seizure acts, it can be said: 809. The national civil aviation security programme shall be established by: 810. Each contracting state shall designate an appropriate authority within its administration 811. Member states should introduce specific security measures for the air transport of the fol 812. When mixing or contact does take place between passengers subjected to security control an 813. Each member state should designate an appropriate authority with its administration to be 814. Each contracting state shall establish measures to ensure that the aircraft operator is in 815. When a member state allows police officers, security staff, bodyguards or other agents of 816. The objective of the investigation of an accident or incident shall be the: 817. Which of the following, according to ICAO Annex 13, shall be entitled to appoint an accred 818. The accident investigation preliminary report shall be submitted to appropriate States and 819. Upon receipt of the modification and a request by the state of occurence for participation 820. Who is responsible, under Annex 13 of the Chicago convention for the initiation of an acci 821. Just before arriving on the apron, taxiing inadvertently on the grass, a wheel falls into 822. According to JAR-FCL, an examiner's authorisation is valid for: 823. According to JAR-FCL, the validity of type ratings and multi-engine class ratings will be 824. According to JAR-FCL, the privileges of the holder of an unrestricted FI(A) rating are to 825. According to JAR-FCL, the aeroplane instructor categories recognised are: 826. According to JAR-FCL, the privileges of a newly qualified FI(a) are restricted to carrying 827. According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for ATPL(A) shall have demonstrated the ability to perf 828. According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for ATPL(A) shall have completed as a pilot of aeroplan 829. According to JAR-FCL, successful completion of multi-crew co-operation (MCC) training shal 830. According to JAR-FCL, single pilot single-engine class ratings are valid for: 831. According to JAR-FCL, Medical certificates classes are: 832. The validity of the instrument-rating aeroplane IR(A) is: 833. According to JAR-FCL, establishment of separate type rating for aeroplanes will be assesse 834. You may act as flight instructor to carry out flight instruction for the issue of a PPL 835. According to JAR-FCL, a professional flight crew licence issued by a non JAA State may be 836. According to JAR-FCL, licence holders do not exercise the privileges of their licences, re 837. According to JAR-FCL, Class 2 medical certificate for private pilots will be valid for 838. According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for a CPL(A) who has satisfactory followed an completed 839. According to JAR-FCL, an instrument rating is valid for: 840. According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for an IR(A) shall hold a PPL(A) including a night qual 841. According to JAR-FCL, class rating shall be established for single pilots aeroplanes not r