JAA ATPL Questions

010 AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES 021 AIRFRAME AND SYSTEMS, ELECTRICS, POWERPLANT, EMERGENCY EQUIPMENT 022 INSTRUMENTATION 031 MASS AND BALANCE - AEROPLANES 032 PERFORMANCE - AEROPLANES 033 FLIGHT PLANNING AND FLIGHT MONITORING 040 HUMAN PERFORMANCE 050 METEOROLOGY 061 GENERAL NAVIGATION 062 RADIO NAVIGATION 071 OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES 081 PRINCIPLES OF FLIGHT - AEROPLANE 091 VFR COMMUNICATIONS 092 IFR COMMUNICATIONS

[ATPL TOPICS] 010-01 INTERNATIONAL AGREEMENTS AND ORGANISATIONS 010-02 ANNEX 8 - AIRWORTHINESS OF AIRCRAFT 010-03 ANNEX 7 - AIRCRAFT NATIONALITY AND REGISTRATION MARKS 010-04 ANNEX 1 - PERSONNEL LICENSING 010-05 RULES OF THE AIR (based on ANNEX 2) 010-06 FLIGHT PROCEDURES, OPERATIONS & NAVIGATION 010-07 ANNEX 11 - AIR TRAFFIC SERVICES (ATS) 010-08 AERONAUTICAL INFORMATION SERVICE ANNEX 15 010-09 ANNEX 14 - AERODROMES 010-10 ANNEX 9 - FACILITATION 010-11 ANNEX 12 - SEARCH AND RESCUE / SAR 010-12 ANNEX 17 - SECURITY 010-13 AIRCRAFT ACCIDENT AND INCIDENT INVESTIGATION

[ATPL SUBTOPICS]

1. Which Annex to the Chicago Convention covers dangerous goods carried in aircraft? 2. What is each contracting state of ICAO required to provide? 3. For aircraft flying over the high seas, which rules shall be in force? 4. Where was the Convention on International Civil Aviation signed in 1944? 5. The objectives of ICAO were ratified by the: 6. Annex 14 to the convention on international civil aviation contains SARPS for: 7. Where there is an amendment to an International Standard a State must give notice to: 8. According to the Chicago Convention, aircraft of Contracting States shall have the right t 9. The Paris Convention of 1919 defined the status of international airspace and gave the aut 10. The Air Navigation Commission consists of: 11. One of the main objectives of ICAO is to: 12. Which of the following concerning aviation, applies in areas where international law is ap 13. For which flights is the article about cabotage in the Convention of Chicago applicable? 14. The 'Standards' contained in the Annexes to the Chicago convention are to be considered: 15. Annex 17 to the Convention of Chicago covers: 16. Concerning the Chicago Convention of 1944: 17. What is the obligation of a State in the event of non-compliance with an International Sta 18. Which of the following is obligating for members of ICAO? 19. If a state finds that it is impracticable to comply with an International Standard: 20. The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) establishes: 21. Which of the following statements is true regarding the Rules of the Air over the high sea 22. What is the definition of HIGH SEAS? 23. Where is the headquarters of ICAO? 24. Non-scheduled aircraft of one contracting state have the right: 25. Any contracting state may denounce the Convention of Montreal by written notification to t 26. Which is the permanent body of ICAO being responsible to the Assembly? 27. Article 36 of the Chicago Convention is concerned with photographic apparatus in aircraft. 28. What is the proper name given to a business that includes the provision of flights for the 29. An aircraft flying over the territory of another state must: 30. Which body of ICAO finalises the Standard and Recommended Practices (SARPS) for submission 31. Who is responsible for the development and modifications of the SARPS: 32. The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) was established by the international 33. Which of the following ICAO documents contain International Standards and Recommended Prac 34. Which Annex to the Chicago Convention deals with Licensing of Aircrew? 35. The president of the ICAO Council is elected for: 36. Any contracting state may denounce the Convention of Tokyo by notification addressed to... 37. The international convention defining rules relative to the responsibilities of internatio 38. The right to damages is lost if an action is not brought within 2 years, this time starts 39. In which area of Air Traffic Control in Europe does Eurocontrol have a logical and operati 40. The privilege for an airplane registered in one state and enroute to or from that state, t 41. The convention of Tokyo applies to damage: 42. An airline is planning a flight that will require a technical landing in a neighboring sta 43. The JAA is controlled by: 44. The privilege to land in another ICAO participating State for technical reasons is called: 45. The problems of hijacking were discussed at: 46. Does the liability of a carrier extend to the carriage of mail and cargo as well as passen 47. The Warsaw convention and later amendments deals with: 48. Which of the following is one of the main objectives of the Joint Aviation Authorities (JA 49. Under the terms of the Tokyo convention of 1963, what is a contracting state required to d 50. The first freedom of the air is: 51. Why is the 8th freedom of the air particularly applicable to the European Union? 52. What did the Conference of Cyprus in 1990 establish? 53. Within Europe, certain non-scheduled commercial flights between ECAC States may be carried 54. In 1955 an intergovernmental organization was founded in Europe to promote the continuing 55. Which freedom gives the privilege to land for non-traffic purposes in another ICAO contrac 56. 5th Freedom of the Air is: 57. What is the status of IATA? 58. The Warsaw Convention of 1929 dealt with the liabilities of carriers and their agents. Spe 59. Is the JAA membership restricted to the members of the European Union? 60. The privilege to land for non-traffic purposes, e.g. refueling, maintenance is to followin 61. An aircraft having sustained damage while on the territory of a Contracting State other th 62. The second freedom of the air is the: 63. The convention which deals with offences against penal law is: 64. Which convention makes acts of violence on board, destruction of aircraft in flight and de 65. If a state applied CABOTAGE, what would be prevented? 66. What does the second Freedom of the Air permit? 67. What is the relationship between the JAA and ECAC? 68. According to the Tokyo Convention of 1963, who is considered to be competent to exercise j 69. How will a member State withdraw from the Tokyo Convention? 70. According to which Convention may an aircraft commander impose measures upon a person comm 71. The privilege to fly across the territory of another participating state without landing i 72. A carrier is liable for damage sustained in the event of death or wounding of a passenger 73. What privilege does the first 'Freedom of the Air' grant? 74. The right to damages is lost if an action is not brought within: 75. 6th Freedom of the Air is: 76. The convention on offences and certain acts committed on board aircraft is called: 77. " Cabotage" refers to: 78. Which convention deals with the liability of a carrier to passengers and freight consignee 79. Which convention on international air navigation resulted in the agreements concerning the 80. What are the measures by which free movement of aeroplanes, crew, passengers and goods not 81. When an aircraft subjected to an unlawful interference has landed it shall notify by the m 82. What is cabotage? 83. What flights are protected by the Prevention of Terrorism Act? 84. What does the International Air Transport Agreement provide for? 85. The privilege of landing in another state for a technical stop only is called: 86. Which convention deals with the unification of rules related to damage caused by aircraft 87. The aircraft commander, when he has reasonable grounds to believe that a person has commit 88. Where are the duties and responsibilities of the Commander defined? 89. What can the Commander of an aircraft do if he has reason to believe that a person has or 90. The convention signed by the states and moved by a desire to endure adequate compensation 91. The Rome Convention and later amendments deals with: 92. Where was the 1952 convention that deals with damage caused by foreign aircraft to third p 93. If a person is injured by a part falling from an aircraft flying over the state but regist 94. Any person who suffers damage on the surface shall, upon proof only that damage was caused 95. Who is responsible when damage is caused by an aeroplane to persons or property on the gro 96. What is a JAA operator required to do before he is permitted to WET LEASE IN an aeroplane 97. If a JAA operator (A) provides an aeroplane and complete crew for lease to another JAA ope 98. Can a JAA operator dry lease an aeroplane from FAA operator on a short notice basis withou 99. The state of design shall ensure that there exists a continuing structural integrity progr 100. When an aircraft has sustained damage, the aircraft shall be allowed to resume its flight, 101. Who is competent to issue a Certificate of Airworthiness? 102. Which of the following is not found on the Certificate of Airworthiness: 103. The Standards of Airworthiness, detailed in Annex 8 part III are applicable to: 104. Who is responsible for determining the continuing airworthiness of an aeroplane? 105. The standards of Annex 8 (Airworthiness of Aircraft) relate to: 106. Annex 8 covers airworthiness of aircraft. Who is responsible for the administration of the 107. According to ICAO Annex 8, a certificate of airworthiness shall be renewed or shall remain 108. Who is responsible for the issuance of a certificate of airworthiness? 109. The continuation of validity of a Certificate of Airworthiness is dependant upon what? 110. The loading limitations shall include: 111. Which of the following statements are correct concerning the flight crew compartment door? 112. A gyroplane is classified as a: 113. Which annexes to the Chicago Convention deals with registration and marking of aircraft? 114. The height of the marks on the fuselage (or equivalent structure) and on the vertical tail 115. Which of the following is a prohibited combination in aircraft registration letters? 116. When letters are used for the registration mark, combinations shall not be used which migh 117. When the first character of the registration mark is a letter: 118. When letters are used for registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be 119. According to Annex 7, the registration mark shall be letters, numbers or a combination of 120. Regarding an aircraft Certificate of Registration: 121. How high are the markings on the horizontal surfaces of an aeroplane? 122. Certain registration marks are prohibited by Annex 7 (Aircraft Nationality and Registratio 123. When letters are used for the registration mark combinations shall not be used which might 124. When letters are used for registration mark, combinations shall not be used which might be 125. The certificate of registration shall: 126. Annex 7 (Aircraft Nationality and Registration Marks) contains: 127. What is a COMMON MARK? 128. Which of the following letter-groups may not be used as registration mark? 129. State that is responsible for assigning registration marks and how registration marks may 130. A certificate of registration shall be kept... at all times. 131. When letters are used for registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be 132. Where the certificate of registration for an aeroplane must be kept whilst the aeroplane i 133. Which of the following is not found on the Certificate of Registration: 134. ICAO Annex 7 contains... 135. Which of the following registration marks would not be permitted? 136. The height of the marks on lighter than air aircraft other than unmanned free balloons sha 137. The height of the marks under the wings of heavier than air aircraft shall be: 138. According to Annex 7 (Aircraft Nationality and Registration Markings) certain combinations 139. An aeroplane has a registration mark D-MABB. Must there always be an hyphen between the na 140. What is the period of validity of a JAR CPL? 141. If a JAA member state validates a licence issued by a non-JAA state. How long is the perio 142. ICAO personnel licensing rules and regulations are contained in Annex... to the Chicago Co 143. In order to fly as pilot-in-command for commercial air transport, you must hold a type rat 144. What self medication is permitted by aircrew? 145. Before a flight instructor can instruct for the issue of CPL(A) he/she must have: 146. When does the holder of a medical certificate need to seek advice from an authorised medic 147. When a contracting state renders valid a licence issued by another contracting state the v 148. " Demonstration of skill to revalidate or renew ratings, and including such oral exam 149. The assigment of the common mark to a common mark registering authority will be made by: 150. The applicant to exercise the functions of an Instrumental Flight Rating in _____ aeroplan 151. For which aircraft is MCC required? 152. How long is a JAA ATPL(A) valid for? 153. When a contracting state renders valid a licence issued by another contracting state, the 154. If a licence holder is unable to perform the flight crew functions appropriate to that lic 155. How old do you have to be to have a PPL? 156. Which medical certificate is required for a CPL or ATPL and by whom shall the medical chec 157. In the context of duty and flight time limitation, “ flight time” means: ti 158. In order to qualify for an ATPL a pilot must have (1) hours of cross-country flight time o 159. The period between aircrew medical examinations for an ATPL(A) decreases to 6 months at wh 160. The validity period of a type rating is 161. The minimum age for a CPL (A) shall be at least: 162. According to JAR-FCL, establishment of separate type rating for aeroplanes will be assesse 163. An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence aeroplane shall have completed in aero 164. The minimum age for obtaining a PPL is: 165. According to JAR-FCL, a professional flight crew licence license issued by a non JAA State 166. Medical requirements are contained in the following JAR-FCL Part: 167. How old is the applicant required to be to hold an ATPL(A)? 168. The privileges of the holder of a commercial pilot licence-aeroplane shall be: 169. An applicant for a commercial pilot licence-aeroplane shall have completed not less than . 170. The duration of the period of currency of a medical assessment shall begin on the date: 171. The International Civil Aviation Convention Annex containing standards and recommended pra 172. Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains minimum specifications f 173. How old does an applicant have to be to hold a Commercial Pilot's Licence? 174. According to JAR-FCL, Class 2 medical certificate for private pilots will be valid for 175. The minimum age for the issue of an ATPL(A) license is: 176. In certain circumstances a medical examination may be deferred at the discretion of the li 177. You may act as a flight instructor to carry out flight instruction for the issue of a PPL 178. An applicant for a CPL (A) shall have completed at least the following flight time: 179. The validity period of a PPL for a pilot between 50 and 65 years is: 180. What is the total fight time required for the issue of an ATPL(A)? 181. According to JAR-FCL, the privileges of a newly qualified Flight Instructor are restricted 182. According to JAR-FCL, Medical certificate classes are: 183. For the issue of a CPL(A) what cross country experience is required? 184. Which of the statements concerning the privileges of a holder of a CPL (A) is correct: 185. According to JAR-FCL, successful completion of multi-crew co-operation (MCC) training shal 186. A type rating is required for: 187. How many classes of medical assessment are available for pilots? 188. According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for ATPL(A) shall have demonstrated the ability to perf 189. The validity of the instrument-rating aeroplane - IR(A) is: 190. To what matters does JAR FCL-3 relate? 191. How long is a pilot licence is valid for? 192. The holder of a pilot licence, when acting as co-pilot of an aircraft required to be opera 193. According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for ATPL (A)shall have completed as a pilot of aeroplan 194. How many hours or days would you have to spend in a clinic or hospital before you would ha 195. The prescribed re-examination of a licence holder operating in an area distant from design 196. SARP’ s are established for licensing flight crew. Which of the following licences 197. Type ratings are established for 198. An applicant for a commercial pilot licence aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes n 199. How many hours of night flying is required to obtain an ATPL(A)? 200. May further ratings under JAR-FCL requirements be obtained be other States than the State 201. According to JAR-FCL, an examiner's authorisation is valid for: 202. To be able to execute a public transport flight, the minimum and maximum age (with ATPL) i 203. How long is an instructor rating valid for? 204. The period of validity of a JAR-FCL instrument rating is: 205. According to JAR-FCL, licence holders do not exercise the privileges of their licences, re 206. The proficiency check of a pilot took place the 15th of April. The validity of the previou 207. An applicant holding a private or commercial pilot licence aeroplane for the issue of an i 208. According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for a CPL (A) who has satisfactorily followed and compl 209. How long is a class 1 medical certificate valid for? 210. An applicant for a commercial pilot licence aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes n 211. According to JAR-FCL, class rating shall be established for single pilots aeroplanes not r 212. What defines NORMAL RESIDENCY? 213. According to JAR-FCL, an instrument rating is valid for: 214. An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall hold 215. According to JAR-FCL, the privileges of the holder of an unrestricted FI(A) rating are to 216. The validity period of an IR (A) is 217. An instrument rating test is valid for a period of: 218. The holder of a pilot's licence should inform the Authority of any illness which they are 219. The minimum age to hold a JAR-FCL ATPL (A) is: 220. According to JAR-FCL, the aeroplane instructor categories recognised are: 221. What is the JAR FCL definition of instrument time? 222. When should the holder of a medical certificate seek the advice of the authority or an AME 223. When the holders of aircraft transport pilot licences aeroplane and helicopter have passed 224. When exercising the privileges of the licence during flight time, what documents are requi 225. The proficiency check of a pilot took place the 15th of April. The validity of the previou 226. The minimum age for a ATPL (A) shall be at least: 227. What is the minimum age at which a flight instructor rating may be held? 228. An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less th 229. According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for an IR(A) shall hold a PPL (A)including a night qual 230. For commercial pilot licence aeroplane the applicant shall have completed in aeroplanes no 231. The licensing authority shall determine whether experience as pilot under instruction in a 232. In which circumstance does the holder of a medical certificate need to inform the authorit 233. Every holder of a medical certificate issued in accordance with JAR-FCL Part 3 (Medical) w 234. If due to an illness, a pilot is unable to act as a member of a flight crew for a period o 235. Until the holder of a medical certificate reaches the age of 40, the validity of the medic 236. An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not 237. According to JAR-FCL, the validity of type ratings and multi-engine class ratings will be 238. According to JAR-FCL, single pilot single-engine class ratings are valid for: 239. Which of the following is one of the privileges of CPL(A)/IR licence? 240. Type ratings shall be established 241. An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not 242. The holder of a pilot licence when acting as co-pilot performing under the supervision of 243. The applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes no 244. How long is an instrument rating (IR) valid for? 245. The holder of a licence with a night flying qualification that does not include a valid IR 246. If you have a type rating on a 737-300, are you permitted to hold a type rating on any oth 247. The age of an applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall not be less than: 248. The PPL(A) or CPL(A) applicant for an IR(A) must have completed: 249. After a flight crew licence holder reaches their 40th birthday medical assessments are eve 250. According to JAR-FCL, a professional flight crew licence issued by a non JAA State may be 251. AIRAC is: 252. What is Special VFR? 253. With regard to civil and state aircraft (Article 3). Which of the following is not a state 254. How is Flight Visibility defined? 255. When does FLIGHT TIME end? 256. Flight visibility is: 257. Which of the following correctly defines flight visibility? 258. Which of the following correctly defines Special VFR? 259. What is a danger area? 260. An aircraft is deemed to be in flight: 261. What is aerodrome traffic? 262. PANS are: 263. An aircraft is considered to overtake another if it approaches the other aircraft from the 264. What is the meaning of AGL? 265. In the case of a piloted flying machine, it shall be deemed to be in flight: 266. Which of the following defines flight visibility? 267. How is night defined? 268. Who shall have the final authority over the disposition of the aircraft? 269. When operating under Special VFR clearance, the responsibility for remaining clear of obst 270. The commander of a public transport aircraft must ensure that passenger seat belts are sec 271. An aircraft is in controlled airspace under ATC control. The responsibility for ensuring a 272. Who decides whether to fly under IFR or VFR in VMC? 273. Who is responsible for the security in the aircraft during flight: 274. In flight who is responsible for compliance with the rules of the air (Annex 2)? 275. The person who has final authority as to the disposition of an aircraft during flight time 276. Which is the correct order of priority: 277. What is the minimum flight altitude permitted over towns and settlements and populated are 278. A controlled flight is requested to inform the appropriate ATC unit whenever the average T 279. An aircraft being towed by night must display: 280. Anti-collision lights on an aircraft must be switched on: 281. Which of the following flights has the greatest priority to land? 282. When two aircraft are approaching head on, and there is a danger of collision: 283. RPL’ s are used for flights with which of the following properties: 284. In accordance with the general rules, which statement is correct? 285. An aircraft that has the right of way shall maintain its: 286. When acknowledging mode/code setting instructions, pilots shall: 287. An aircraft operated on, or in the vicinity of, an aerodrome shall whether or not within a 288. Aircraft taxiing in the manoeuvring area must give way to: 289. Two or more white crosses, displayed on runways and taxiways, indicate that: 290. When has a flight plan to be filed at the latest: 291. You have filed a VFR flight plan. What do you put in field 16 (total estimated elapsed tim 292. During initial climb in uncontrolled airspace, the altimeter setting should be: 293. Where two aircraft are converging at the same level: 294. On aerodromes aircraft taxiing on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome shall give way to: 295. Which of the following actions shall be taken in case of a controlled flight deviates from 296. No aircraft shall be flown over the congested area of cities, towns or settlements unless 297. The pre-flight actions for a flight leaving the local aerodrome area, is to include: 298. A pilot squawking Mode C when two-way radio communication is lost should select his transp 299. An airborne flight plan must be submitted: 300. Aircraft on the manoeuvring area have to give way to: 301. A flight plan shall be submitted for: 302. When an aircraft is being operated in the air or on the movement area of an aerodrome, it 303. With regard to formation flying, aircraft are expected to be: 304. Flights at or above the lowest usable flight level or where applicable, above the transiti 305. When two-way radio communication is lost, a pilot should select... on the transponder. 306. An aircraft Captain should transmit special aircraft observations when he encounters: 307. On the ground, when two aircraft are approaching head on: 308. Aircraft " A" with an ATC clearance is flying in VMC conditions within a contro 309. From sunset to sunrise an aircraft in flight shall display: 310. If a pilot lands at an aerodrome other than his destination he must notify ATC of the dest 311. No aircraft shall be flown over the congested area of cities, towns or settlements unless 312. Which type of service is provided in Class F airspace: 313. An aircraft shall display, if so equipped, an anti-collision light: 314. When is deviation from the rules of the air permitted? 315. One of the following statements about aircraft ground movement is correct: 316. When two taxiing aircraft are converging: 317. For flights into control zones, the following meteorological conditions do not require a s 318. What defines a danger area? 319. On an IFR flight in airspace class D, you receive a traffic information from ATC, that a V 320. What is the speed limit below 10 000 ft in Class B airspace? 321. While flying at night another aircraft reports that you are on his 100 degrees relative be 322. Aircraft shall not be flown in formation except: 323. If the ground visibility is reported 1000 m, can a special VFR flight take off from an aer 324. Except when necessary for take-off or landing, a VFR flight over congested areas of cities 325. You are outside controlled airspace on a VFR flight above 3,000ft. Your distance from the 326. If the reported ground visibility is 1000 metres, can a special VFR flight take off from a 327. In areas where a separation minimum of 1000 ft. is applied up to FL 410, authorization for 328. The VMC minima for an airspace classified as " G" above 10 000 feet MSL are: 329. When an aircraft is operating in class F airspace below 900 m amsl the minimum horizontal 330. An aircraft flying above the sea between 4 500 feet MSL and 9 000 feet MSL outside control 331. The minimum flight visibility and distance from clouds on a VFR flight in airspace class C 332. SVFR may be authorized when the ground visibility is not less than: 333. Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit, a VFR flight can not enter or leave 334. Procedure to be applied in case of communication failure in VMC: 335. VFR operations can be suspended by which of the following: 336. In order to comply with VFR outside controlled airspace above 3,000ft a pilot must be 1,00 337. A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as B has to maintain the follow 338. A special VFR clearance may be obtained from ATC for the following airspaces: 339. In order to operate under visual flight rules above FL100 in uncontrolled airspace these m 340. VFR flights shall not be operated under which of the following conditions:

341. VMC minima for VFR flights in Class B airspace, above 3050m (10000 ft) AMSL, are: 342. Except where necessary for landing and take off, VFR flights are not permitted over conges 343. On a VFR-Flight which of the following cruising levels would you select under the followin 344. A VFR flight shall comply with the provisions laid out in ATC clearances under which of th 345. What is put in item 8 of a flight plan form if the flight is to start under VFR and then c 346. Which provisions on a VFR-flight in Class E airspace are CORRECT? 347. On a VFR flight, your magnetic track is 005° , the magnetic heading 355° . Which 348. The VMC minima for an airspace classified as " B" above 10 000 feet MSL are: 349. An aircraft is at 12,000ft in category F airspace (VFR). The required distance from cloud 350. What is the VMC criteria for a flight under VFR in class G airspace at 2000 ft AMSL at 200 351. A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as C has to maintain the follow 352. VFR flight shall not be flown: 353. When an aircraft is operating in class F airspace above 900 m amsl the minimum vertical di 354. On a VFR flight in airspace class B, what is the minimum distance from clouds? 355. When flying under IFR, you experience total communications failure in conditions of no clo 356. Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding level to be maintained by an aircr 357. If the intention is to change from IFR to VFR at some point during flight, the letter... i 358. You are flying IFR in IMC and you experience a total communications failure. Do you: 359. If you are flying IFR in IMC conditions and you experience a total communications failure, 360. An IFR flight shall not be cleared for an initial approach below the appropriate minimum a 361. Flying a magnetic track of 125deg, what is the correct non RVSM semi-circular flight level 362. When flying on an airway on a heading of 255(M) the correct flight level will be: 363. Given:

AGL = above ground level
AMSL = above mean sea level
FL = flight level 364. Flights away from the vicinity of an aerodrome and all IFR flights shall include which of 365. When flying in IFR you experience a total communications failure in VMC conditions. What s 366. While on IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from an ATC clearan 367. An aircraft on a controlled flight suffers a radio failure in IMC. Unless a regional navig 368. Where no minimum flight altitudes have been established for IFR flights, which statement c 369. Aircraft wishing to conduct IFR flight within advisory airspace, but not electing to use t 370. An aircraft with a communications failure is attempting to land at its destination. It mus 371. Where State has not established minimum IFR altitudes, the minimum height of an aircraft a 372. An aircraft is flying under Instrument Flight Rules in an area where the visibility is unl 373. Instrument Meteorological Conditions (IMC) are: 374. An aircraft used for simulated instrument flying must have: 375. On an IFR flight, you experience a total communication failure in conditions of no clouds 376. If a communication failure is experienced on an IFR flight in IMC, the pilot shall: 377. In areas where a vertical separation of 2000 ft has to be applied above FL 290, which grou 378. During an IFR flight in VMC in controlled airspace you experience a two-way radio communic 379. Changing of flight rules from IFR to VFR is possible: 380. An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference ('hijacked') and is forced t 381. Aerodrome control can use light signals when radio communications are not possible. For an 382. The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar indicates that: 383. A steady green light from aerodrome control to an aircraft on the ground means: 384. Which signal from a Marshaller indicated 'engage brakes'? 385. (Refer to figure 010-14)
What is the meaning of the following visual ground signal? 386. Aerodrome control signal to an aircraft in flight using a series of green flashes, what do 387. A flashing intermittent red light from the ground to an aircraft in the air means: 388. (Refer to figure 010-15)
What is the meaning of the following visual ground signal? 389. The visual signal for indicating a state of distress in the air is: 390. When a pilot raises his arms extended palms facing outwards and moves his hands inwards to 391. While taxiing, an aircraft receives from the airport controller the following light signal 392. At an aerodrome, a red pyrotechnic means: 393. An aircraft manoeuvring in an airport's circuit receives a series of red flashes from the 394. Aerodrome control can use light signals when radio communications are not possible. For an 395. Which signal to an aircraft in flight, means " return for landing" ? 396. A red flare addressed to a flying aircraft means: 397. A black letter " C" on a yellow background indicates: 398. Which of the following aerodrome ground signals displayed in the signals area indicates th 399. A black letter - C - on a yellow background indicates: 400. (Refer to figure 010-17)
What is the meaning of the sign attached here seen in an airfi 401. (Refer to figure 010-18)
What is the meaning of the following visual ground signal? 402. The signal from pilot to marshaller which means - brakes applied - is: 403. What does a red flashing light from the control tower to an aircraft on the manoeuvring ar 404. Which signal from a marshaller indicates 'all clear'? 405. steady red light beam directed at an aircraft in flight from the Aerodrome Control tower m 406. Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome, experie 407. Whilst flying in an aerodrome's traffic circuit, an aircraft receives a series of green fl 408. What does a red square with a yellow cross in the signals square indicate? 409. A series of red flashes sent to an aircraft in flight means: 410. (Refer to figure 010-16)
What is the meaning of the following visual ground signal? 411. Series of red flashes directed towards an aircraft on ground mean: 412. A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals: 413. A red square with a yellow diagonal displayed in the signals area indicates: 414. While taxiing an aircraft receives the following light signal from the control tower: seri 415. A double white cross displayed in the signal square means: 416. A marshaller has his arms above his head in vertical position palms facing inward. This me 417. Which of the following statements is true about the signals area of an aerodrome? 418. " Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of body, then clen 419. A flashing red light from control tower during an approach to land means: 420. You are in an aircraft at night and the aerodrome control tower begins to flash the taxi a 421. A double white cross displayed horizontally in the signal area means: 422. At night an aircraft observes a luminous signal requesting help. To indicate that he has r 423. At night you observe ground signals from survivors of a disaster. What do you do to indica 424. (Refer to figure 010-17)
The following signal, seen in an airfield signals square indic 425. A green intermittent light from aerodrome control to an aircraft on the ground means: 426. The light signal indicating "give way to other aircraft and continue circling" is: 427. A red square panel with a yellow strip along each diagonal, displayed in the signals area 428. To cross lighted stop bars on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome, the following applies: 429. Your aircraft is intercepted by a military aircraft. The signals given by this aircraft co 430. An aircraft equipped with SSR transponder which is intercepted by another aircraft shall i 431. If radio communication is established during an interception but communications in a commo 432. An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft, if equipped with SSR transponder shall, unles 433. If radio contact with the intercepting aircraft is established but communication on a comm 434. If, during an interception, instructions received by radio from any sources conflict with 435. An aircraft which is intercepted by another aircraft shall set its transponder to: 436. After an aircraft has been intercepted in flight, the intercepted aircraft is rocking its 437. Which manoeuvre shall be executed by an intercepting aircraft if the pilot wants to commun 438. After an aircraft has been intercepted in flight, the intercepting aircraft makes an abrup 439. An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately attempt to establish radio c 440. Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding level to be maintained by an aircr 441. In areas where a vertical separation minimum (VSM) of 300 m (1000 ft) is applied between F 442. Above flight level FL 290 (non-RVSM) the vertical flight separation between aircraft on th 443. PANS-OPS means: 444. The document that specifies the recommendations for instrument procedures is called... 445. The term used to describe the visual phase of flight after completing an instrument approa 446. What is defined as the portion of a flight in which the aircraft descends below 1000 ft ab 447. A manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a designated track followed by a turn in the 448. The Transition Level: 449. NOZ is: 450. A notice containing information concerning flight safety, air navigation, technical, admin 451. A " precision approach" is a direct instrument approach... 452. VORTAC is: 453. Based on operational considerations, a margin may be added to the OCA of a non-precision a 454. The " estimated total time" in block 16 of a VFR flight plan is the estimated t 455. A radial is: 456. A circling approach is: 457. What is the meaning of MEHT? 458. What is the meaning of OCA? 459. What does the abbreviation DER mean? 460. OCH for a precision approach is defined as: 461. What is DER? 462. What is a STAR? 463. When does night exist? 464. What is the meaning of DER: 465. What does AAL mean? 466. The minimum height to which an aircraft may safely continue a precision approach, without 467. A visual approach is: 468. What does the abbreviation OIS mean? 469. What does the abbreviation DER mean? 470. In an instrument approach procedure, the segment in which alignment and descent for landin 471. The approach categories of aircraft are based upon: 472. Runway visual range is reported when it falls below: 473. As a rule, while establishing the departure procedures, the operator reckons that aeroplan 474. During an omni-directional departure, what height are you required to climb to before turn 475. The main factor that dictates in general the design of an instrument departure procedure i 476. For a turning departure turns may be specified at: 477. turning departure is constructed if a departure route requires a turn of more than: 478. Which of the following factors is not considered in the design of an Instrument Departure 479. In the event of a delay of 30 minutes in excess of the estimated EOBT for a controlled fli 480. A four-engine aeroplane is about to take-off from an airport where poor weather conditions 481. In a straight departure, the initial departure track is of the alignment of the runway cen 482. What is a low visibility take-off? 483. A public transport aircraft shall not take-off unless the following minima for the departu 484. The procedure design gradient (PDG) consists of: 485. Departure routes are based upon track guidance acquired within: 486. The PDG is made up of: 487. We can distinguish two types of departure routes. During a straight departure the initial 488. When can the required noise abatement procedure be disregarded? 489. Which of the following information is promulgated for a departure procedure:
490. If in an instrument departure procedure the track to be followed by the aeroplane is publi 491. Turning departures provide track guidance within: 492. Who is responsible for the development of the contingency procedures required to cover the 493. In an instrument departure procedure the minimum obstacle clearance at the departure end o 494. When constructing a turning area departure the temperature used is: 495. What is the minimum obstacle clearance on an instrument departure? 496. For an omni-directional departure the procedure ensures that: 497. For an instrument departure (SID) what is the procedure design gradient (PDG)? 498. Which of the following standard instrument departures is not a straight departure?
499. Who is responsible for establishing contingency procedures for engine failure after take o 500. Two aeroplanes are approaching to land on parallel runways on independent parallel approac 501. Where does the intermediate missed approach segment end? 502. What is the minimum lateral limit of the approach area into a control zone from the centre 503. A so called " Visual Approach" can be performed: 504. For precision approaches, the Final Approach Fix (FAF) is set at a specified distance from 505. In a procedure turn (45° /180° ), a 45° turn away from the outbound track 506. What is the lowest possible MDH for a VOR/DME non-precision approach? 507. The protection areas associated with instrument approach procedures are determined with th 508. Which of the following correctly defines the NOZ for parallel runway operations? 509. Which is the obstacle clearance in the primary area of the initial approach segment in an 510. The MSA, which must be established around a navigation facility, is in general valid withi 511. Under which conditions may an aircraft on a straight-in-VOR approach continue its descend 512. The primary area of an instrument approach segment is: 513. Under what circumstances would an ILS glide path in excess of 3° be used? 514. The climb gradient of a missed approach can be reduced to: 515. A complete missed approach procedure consists of the following phases? 516. One of the conditions to descent below the MDA on a circling approach is: 517. Where does the initial section of a missed approach procedure end? 518. During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum obstacle clearan 519. For a non-precision approach, the final approach fix (FAF) is set at a specified distance 520. If the ILS glide path transmitter fails during an instrument approach procedure, can the a 521. What is the most important factor when designing an instrument departure procedure? 522. During an instrument approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) of the initial approac 523. If contact is lost with the runway on the down-wind leg of a circling manoeuvre, what acti 524. In the primary area, the obstacle clearance for the initial approach segment provides at l 525. Minimum sector altitudes are determined by the inbound radial in relation to the IAF. Thes 526. If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, it is expe 527. What is the normal minimum missed approach gradient? 528. Unless otherwise indicated, the missed approach procedures published on the IAC charts are 529. If you lose the necessary visual references while " circling visual" , you shoul 530. Minimum sector altitudes published on approach charts provide at least the following obsta 531. For a category I precision approach, the decision height cannot be lower than: 532. A CAT I operation is a precision approach and landing using an ILS, MLS or PAR with a DH n 533. When constructing an instrument approach, the overall tolerance of an intersecting facilit 534. When determining the OCA for a precision approach, obstacle height is referenced to: 535. What is the maximum permitted intercept angle between the initial approach track and the i 536. A visual manoeuvring (circling) area may be sectored to exclude a prominent obstacle. When 537. When constructing a turning missed approach the pilot reaction time taken into account is: 538. Who establishes the OCA/H (Obstacle Clearance Altitude/Height) for an approach procedure? 539. Were an operational advantage can be obtained, an ILS procedure may include a dead reckoni 540. If a turn of greater than 15° is required during a missed approach the turn is not a 541. In a precision approach (ILS), obstacle clearance surfaces assume that the pilot does not 542. During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum obstacle clearan 543. Which is the minimum obstacle clearance within the primary area of an intermediate approac 544. Where does the missed approach procedure start? 545. Which are the phases of a missed approach procedure? 546. Which is the obstacle clearance in the primary area of the intermediate approach segment i 547. Normally, the maximum descent gradient, applicable in the final approach segment to ensure 548. For the construction of precision approaches, which is the operationally preferred glide p 549. The optimum descent gradient in the final approach should not exceed: 550. An operator shall not use a RVR of less than... for a visual approach. 551. You are on an IFR flight executing a circling approach. A descend below the MDA should not 552. The initial approach segment starts at the...and the obstacle clearance (MOC) provided in 553. In a procedure turn (45° /180° ), a 45° turn away from the outbound track 554. The initial missed approach segment: 555. The obstacle clearance in the primary area of the initial approach segment is at least: 556. How many aircraft approach categories are applicable to the new ICAO instrument approach p 557. What is the lowest possible MDH for an ILS back-beam (localizer back-course) non-precision 558. During circling-to-land (with or without prescribed flight track), the maximum allowed air 559. The width of the corridor around a specified arrival route is: 560. Normally, a procedure will be designed to provide protected airspace and obstacle clearanc 561. For a 45/180 procedure turn, what is the outbound leg time for a cat B aircraft? 562. The obstacle clearance surfaces of an ILS approach assumes a pilot localiser accuracy of: 563. A missed approach procedure consists of: 564. Where a final approach fix (FAF) is specified for a non-precision approach procedure, what 565. At what height is visual circling carried out? 566. During the arrival and initial segments of an instrument procedure, what is the obstacle c 567. For an ASR, within 40 nm of the radar, fix tolerance is assumed to be: 568. On an instrument approach - when may the pilot descend below MSA?
1. When th
569. When constructing an instrument approach, the overall tolerance of an intersecting facilit 570. An instrument approach procedure consists of: 571. Within how many degrees of the published approach track would the aircraft be 'established 572. Where does the initial phase of a missed approach procedure end? 573. When performing a circling approach, descent below MDA/H should not be made until: 574. For a non-precision approach, the elevation of the relevant runway threshold is used if: 575. What is the distance on final approach within which the controller should suggest that the 576. In general, during a straight-in approach, the MDH cannot be below: 577. What is the lowest possible MDH for a SRA non-precision approach terminating at 1NM? 578. In a precision approach (ILS), the final approach segment begins at the: 579. What action should be taken if contact is lost with the aerodrome on the downwind leg? 580. During an arrival procedure under an IFR flight plan in VMC conditions, traffic avoidance 581. Normally missed approach procedures are based on a nominal missed approach climb gradient 582. A turn executed by the aircraft during the initial approach between the end of the outboun 583. During a visual circling, descent below MDA/H shall not be made until:
1. Vi
584. In a precision approach (ILS), the OCA or OCH values are based among other standard condit 585. What is the correct name for a turn from the outbound to the inbound section of an approac 586. The ILS glide path is normally intercepted between: 587. How many separate segments has an instrument approach procedure? 588. Why is the descent gradient kept as low as possible in the intermediate approach segment? 589. On a non-precision approach a so-called " straight-in-approach" is considered a 590. In the ILS-approach, the OCA is referenced to: 591. What obstacle clearance is guaranteed in the initial segment? 592. A Visual Manoeuvring (Circling) Area may be sectored to exclude a prominent obstacle. Unde 593. Where does the final approach segment for a precision approach start? 594. If a dead reckoning segment is used in a STAR to intercept a localiser, what is its maximu 595. When parallel runway operations are in progress and reduced radar separation of 3 NM betwe 596. Where ends the initial missed approach segment? 597. What is the maximum gradient for the final approach segment of a non-precision approach? 598. Minimum sector altitudes are established for each aerodrome and provide at least .... ft o 599. When the visual manoeuvring (circling) area has been established the obstacle clearance al 600. Where 2 aircraft are established on adjacent parallel ILS localisers, what is the minimum 601. What is the normal procedure design climb gradient for a missed approach procedure? 602. Which of the following approach speed ranges (Vat) is applicable for Category B aircraft? 603. What is the lowest possible MDH for an ILS (without glideslope) non-precision approach? 604. If a stepdown fix is established on the final approach track, a descend shall be made so a 605. An MSA Provides: 606. Where does the initial sector of a missed approach procedure end? 607. Where does the initial approach segment in an instrument approach procedure commence? 608. What is the lowest possible MDH for a VOR non-precision approach? 609. In a precision approach (ILS), generally glide path intersection occurs at heights above r 610. Descend below MDA/H is only allowed when... 611. It is permissible to eliminate from consideration a particular sector where a prominent ob 612. If, during a visual circling, visual reference is lost while circling to land from an inst 613. Which of the following is not shown on an approach plate? 614. The factors considered in the calculations of DA /DH are: 615. For a circling approach, the minimum OCH above aerodrome level is: 616. The NTZ extends from... to... 617. Obstacle clearance for an ILS approach is based on the assumption that the pilot does not 618. Where does the missed approach procedure start? 619. What is the lowest possible MDH for an NDB non-precision approach? 620. What is the obstacle clearance in the intermediate approach segment? 621. What is the steepest descent path permitted for a non precision approach? 622. Who is establishing the aerodrome operational minima for instrument approaches? 623. In a category A aircraft, what reversing turn manoeuvre takes 2 minutes in still air? 624. What is the primary area during the intermediate section of an instrument approach? 625. When constructing an instrument approach, the accuracy of a VOR providing track guidance i 626. You are flying inbound on radial 232 towards VOR EDI. When you are required to hold overhe 627. You are required to carry out an offset joining procedure to enter a holding pattern. What 628. In a holding pattern all turns should be made: 629. Is the length of the outbound leg of a holding pattern always expressed in terms of time? 630. The maximum angle of bank to be used in a holding pattern is: 631. A holding pattern is established on a fix position with an inbound heading of 180° m 632. What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern above FL 140? 633. Entering a holding pattern at FL 110 with a jet aircraft, which will be the maximum speed? 634. In a standard holding pattern turns are made: 635. What is the rate of turn/bank angle required for turns in a holding pattern? 636. In a holding pattern, the pilot should attempt to maintain the... by making allowance for 637. How far beyond the boundary of the holding area extends the buffer area? 638. A holding pattern is established on inbound radial 000 degrees to VOR NTM. You are approac 639. You have received holding instructions for a radio fix. The published holding procedure is 640. What is the name of a climb or descent in a holding pattern? 641. What obstacle clearance is guaranteed at a range of 5 nm from the edge of the holding area 642. If for any reasons a pilot is unable to conform to the procedures for normal conditions la 643. Which is the normal still air outbound time in a holding pattern? 644. When holding at FL110, what is the normal outbound leg time? 645. What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern below FL 140 (no wind)? 646. The still air time for flying the outbound heading should not exceed... if above 14,000ft. 647. What is the minimum obstacle clearance guaranteed at the edge of the buffer area (5 nm out 648. Standard airway holding pattern below 14 000 ft? 649. In the hold at FL60, what is the normal holding speed in a cat B aircraft? 650. What is the deviation allowed either side of track between entry sectors when joining a ho 651. In a holding pattern, turns are to be made: 652. You are flying towards a VOR on the 320 radial and have been told to hold on the 045 radia 653. An expected approach time is given: 654. What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern up to FL 140? 655. In relation to the three entry sectors, the entry into the holding pattern shall be accord 656. The minimum permissible holding level provides a clearance above the obstacles of at least 657. Unless otherwise published or instructed by ATC, all turns after initial entry into the ho 658. What will be your action if you can not comply with a standard holding pattern? 659. Related to the three entry sectors in a holding pattern, there is a zone of flexibility on 660. When you are asked to hold on a non standard holding fix (eg en route) what direction are 661. In a holding pattern all turns are to be made at a: 662. In an offset entry into an omni directional racetrack procedure, the time on the 30° 663. During flight through the transition layer the vertical position of the aircraft should be 664. The transition level: 665. Flight below the transition level is referenced to: 666. With QFE set a serviceable altimeter will indicate: 667. In the standard atmosphere FL150 is equivalent to: 668. A pre-flight altimeter check should be carried out: 669. Flight above the transition altitude is referenced to: 670. The vertical position of an aircraft is expressed in altitude when: 671. The QNH at an aerodrome is 985Mb. The transition altitude is 3000 ft. How deep is the tran 672. The vertical position of an aircraft at or below the transition altitude will be reported: 673. After setting 1013 Mb at the transition altitude you have to climb 350 ft to the transitio 674. In the standard atmosphere FL35 is equivalent to: 675. The vertical position of an aircraft at or above the transition level will be reported: 676. With QFE set a serviceable altimeter will indicate: 677. The transition level: 678. In the vicinity of an aerodrome that is going to be used by the aircraft the vertical posi 679. A pilot operating outside controlled airspace below 3,000 ft should set his altimeter to: 680. At what moment during the approach should the reported airfield altimeter setting be set? 681. The pilot of a departing aircraft flying under IFR shall change the altimeter setting from 682. The transition altitude for an aerodrome is 5000 ft, the QNH is 943 mb (1 mb = 30 ft). Wha 683. The QNH is 1040 mbar and you are flying over the sea at 800 ft altitude. What would your f 684. Transition from altitude to flight level, and vice-versa is done: 685. When should the QNH be communicated to aircraft prior to take-off? 686. Which of the following is true concerning the Transition Altitude? 687. The transition altitude of an aerodrome should not be below: 688. Below and at the transition altitude, the altimeter setting should be: 689. During flight below the transition altitude, the altimeter of an aircraft shall be set to: 690. Within a certain tolerance, what is an altimeter required to read? 691. When an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, the pilot-in-command shall indicat 692. Which of the following correctly lists special purpose codes that are to be used in conjun 693. The pilot of an aircraft losing two-way communications shall set the transponder to Mode A 694. If an aeroplane cannot squawk IDENT, which of the following is a valid method by which ATC 695. Your transponder code assigned by ATC is 5320. In flight, in case of radio communications 696. If the aircraft can not squawk ident, what directions can ATS give to the pilot, without d 697. The tolerance value used to determine that mode C derived level information displayed to t 698. When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C transponder, the pilot shall continuously ope 699. Pilots shall not operate the SSR special position indicator (IDENT) feature unless: 700. During a pre-flight a SSR transponder is found to be inoperative and immediate repair is n 701. What SSR squawk would you set in the absence of any specific code instruction from ATC, wh 702. What SSR squawk indicates communications failure? 703. When shall the SQUAWK IDENT button be pushed by the pilot? 704. The SSR code to indicate communications failure is: 705. What will be the transponder mode and code for radio communication failure? 706. Which code shall be used on mode " A" to provide recognition of an emergency ai 707. When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C equipment, the pilot: 708. An aircraft equipped with an SSR transponder is expected to operate the transponder on Mod 709. Which of the following transponder codes is not a valid SSR mode A squawk? 710. When an aircraft carries a serviceable transponder, the pilot shall operate the transponde 711. Having filed a flight plan to a particular destination and having landed at another destin 712. A flight plan should be amended or a new flight plan submitted and the old flight plan can 713. A landing aircraft is not normally permitted to cross the beginning of the runway on its f 714. What is the maximum speed adjustment that a pilot should be requested to make when under r 715. Deviation from the TAS in the flight plan is to be reported to ATC. By how much would the 716. When flying in advisory airspace and using an advisory service, separation is provided fro 717. In class D airspace the minimum flight visibility for VFR flight above FL 100 is: 718. FIS: 719. What should you reply when told " squawk 0412" 720. A TMA is: 721. To put " L" in the wake turbulence category box of an ATC flight plan what maxi 722. The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level w 723. Two aircraft are reporting over the same VOR, they should be separated by: 724. The Alerting Service is provided by: 725. The period of validity for take-off slots assigned by CEU (flow control centre): 726. For a flight that is subject to flow management, the submission time for the ATC flight pl 727. A separation minimum shall be applied between a light or MEDIUM aircraft and a HEAVY aircr 728. Where a route is designated G246Z, the Z represents: 729. Which radar separation minima are applicable between succeeding aircraft established on th 730. Minimum radar vectoring altitudes should be sufficiently high to minimise... 731. What does ACC mean? 732. Which does ATC Term " Radar contact" signify? 733. RNP type is a containment value expressed in: 734. A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth to a specified upper 735. The vertical IFR separation minimum being applied by ATC within a controlled airspace belo 736. Flight information service provided to flights shall include the provision of information 737. The supposition of a Distress Phase, compared to an Uncertainty or Alert Phase is best des 738. " ESSENTIAL TRAFFIC" is that controlled flight to which the provision of separa 739. " A surveillance technique in which aircraft automatically provide, via data link, da 740. In the event of a delay of a controlled flight, the submitted flight plan should be amende 741. What is an air traffic controller, using radar to provide ATC, required to do prior to pro 742. The controlling authority for a CTA is an: 743. What is the speed limit in class E airspace? 744. When conducting a surveillance radar approach, the radar controller shall terminate the su 745. What is the objective of filing an ATIR (Air Traffic Incident Report)? 746. For departing aircraft, transfer from aerodrome control to approach control occurs when: 747. Who is responsible for an ATC clearance to be safe in respect to terrain clearance? 748. If radar separation of 5 NM during vectoring is being applied, what is the closest an airc 749. An air traffic control service will be provided in which of the following: 750. A flight plan shall be submitted prior to departure for a controlled flight at least: 751. In a controlled airspace where DME separations are in use, two aeroplanes under IFR may fl 752. At least which services have to be provided by ATS within a flight information region? 753. You have been given clearance by ATC but you are suddenly forced to deviate from it for so 754. What does ADR mean? 755. Air Traffic Service unit means: 756. If an ATC clearance is not suitable to the pilot in command of an aircraft: 757. The ATIS broadcast message should, whenever practicable, not exceed 758. The expression " Expected approach time (EAT)" is defined as follows: 759. What is defined as: " A control area or portion thereof established in the form of a 760. Which procedure you follow if during an IFR flight in VMC you have two way communication f 761. Except for take off and landing, an IFR flight is to be flown at a level not below the min 762. A medium and light aircraft are using parallel runways less than 760 metres apart. What is 763. If you are flying a surveillance radar approach (SRA). What information is reported by rad 764. When should the aerodrome controller pass the correct time to an aircraft? 765. If the time estimated for the next reporting point differs from that notified to ATS, a re 766. Flying exactly on your current flight plan route, you receive and acknowledge the followin 767. Which condition is requested so that an aerodrome may be considered controlled? 768. Aircraft separated horizontally by track separation when using a NDB facility are consider 769. An aircraft in climb or descent is considered to have crossed a level when the SSR mode C 770. The planned cruising speed for the first leg or the entire cruising portion of the flight 771. Under which of the following conditions will an aircraft be reported to the area control c 772. ATC clocks are checked to ensure that the time is correct to within: 773. Which statement is correct regarding clearances issued by controllers? 774. If a flight plan has been filed and the flight is delayed a delay message need not be sent 775. What is the radar wake turbulence separation between a heavy category aircraft and a light 776. When on a RNP 1 route is indicated B235 Y, means that all turns shall be made within the a 777. Whenever ATIS is provided, the preparation and dissemination of the ATIS message shall be 778. When using parallel runway operations and vectoring aircraft for an ILS approach, how far 779. Normally all turns, which are requested by a radar controller have to be executed as: 780. Aerodrome lights may be turned off providing they can be brought into operation within.. m 781. Which of the following statements is true concerning radar separation minima? 782. An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all participating IFR flights rec 783. To perform a VFR flight in airspace classification E: 784. On IFR flights, who is responsible for the prevention of collision with terrain?
785. What services are provided to IFR and VFR traffic flying in class E airspace? 786. Aerodrome control can use light signals when radio communications are not possible. For an 787. ATCUs should advise aircraft operators or their designated representatives when anticipate 788. For controlled traffic that shall be separated in the vicinity of an airport, separation m 789. A VFR flight constitutes essential traffic to other VFR flights, when operating in control 790. One of the functions ensured by a radar control unit for the provision of approach control 791. Which of the following defines a visual approach? 792. Aircraft flying along the same track may be separated by DME-distances from the same DME a 793. Aircraft may be required to report when: 794. Two minutes separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on the sa 795. A Control Zone shall extend laterally to at least: 796. An aircraft electing to use an air traffic advisory service while operating IFR is: 797. The units providing Air Traffic Services are: 798. When the Mach number technique (MNT) is being applied, and the preceding aircraft shall ma 799. What is RVSM? 800. Upon intercepting the assigned radial, the controller advises you that you are on the airw 801. Radar controlled aircraft on intermediate or final approach may be requested to make minor 802. On final approach ATC will inform crew of a change in wind velocity. In the case of a tail 803. In order to meet wake turbulence criteria, for arriving aircraft and using timed approache 804. The following applies for aircraft equipped with ACAS:
1. The ACAS capabilit
805. Which of the following statements regarding aerodrome control service is correct? 806. What is the meaning of ATCRU? 807. The following minimum radar separation shall be provided between aircraft on the same loca 808. Which is one of the tasks of an approach controller? 809. For VFR flights, continuous two way radio communication with ATS is required in the follow 810. Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains international standards 811. If a pilot wishes to cancel an IFR flight plan and proceed under VFR in VMC, he must infor 812. Wake turbulence separation minima are based on the grouping of aircraft. Medium is classed 813. ATIS broadcast messages containing departure and arrival information should include cloud 814. What is meant by aerodrome traffic? 815. An aircraft in the wake turbulence category medium following a heavy on final approach mus 816. Subject to conditions specified by the appropriate ATS authority, a radar controller may r 817. The letter " L" is written in the wake turbulence box of a flight plan form whe 818. When IFR flights are cleared to fly maintaining own separation while in VMC, the following 819. What is the longitudinal separation between aircraft on the same route, the preceding airc 820. Unless otherwise required, a flight plan for a flight is to be provided with ATC is to be 821. The phases related to an aircraft in emergency or believed in emergency are: 822. What is the speed limit applied in class C airspace? 823. Succeeding aircraft shall be cleared for approach when the preceding aircraft:
824. The minimum sector altitude provides 300 metres obstacle clearance within how many miles r 825. What is the minimum separation between two aircraft using the same DME station when they a 826. In the event of a controlled flight inadvertently deviating from its flight plan. ATC must 827. If two aeroplanes are departing from the same runway on the same track, and the second int 828. Two aircraft will be flying the same route at the same cruising level. The first aircraft 829. Clearances will be issued by an ATC unit for the purpose of: 830. The radar controller shall not request the pilot to adjust the speed where the aircraft ha 831. When independent parallel approaches are being conducted to parallel runways and vectoring 832. When it becomes apparent that an aircraft is in difficulty, the decision to initiate the a 833. " Time Approach Procedure" is used as necessary to expedite the approach of a n 834. The longitudinal separation minima based on DME, and each aircraft " on track" 835. An aircraft making a radar approach should be directed to consider executing a missed appr 836. At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in the 837. Except when prescribed in procedures or made possible by agreements, aircraft under radar- 838. What are the controlled IFR separation methods applied by ATC? 839. Which letter is used in a flight plan to indicate that the flight commences in accordance 840. Track separation between aircraft using the same navigation aid requires the aircraft to f 841. A lower limit of a Control Area shall be established at a height above the ground level or 842. When cleared for an immediate take-off from the holding point you should: 843. The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level w 844. What separation is applied to two aircraft where the first is 40 kts faster than the secon 845. At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in the 846. What is the definition of 'Aerodrome traffic'? 847. Which of the following has the highest order of priority: 848. When independent parallel approaches are being conducted and vectoring to intercept the IL 849. When are ATIS broadcasts updated? 850. Where a " Secondary Surveillance Radar" (SSR) is not available, radar identific 851. The transfer of an aircraft from one ATC unit to another is done: 852. The longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME, and each aircraft " on tra 853. Concerning to RNP (Required Navigation Performance) types, the indication RNP 4, represent 854. The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as E, when flying belo 855. When climbing or descending through the level of opposite direction traffic what is the mi 856. ILS CAT II/III operations are being carried out on parallel runways. When is wake turbulen 857. One of the functions ensured by a radar control unit for the provision of approach control 858. The longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME, and each aircraft on track 859. Which phase of emergency is declared if an aircraft is known or believed to be the subject 860. Whenever practicable, NOTAM’ s are distributed by: 861. Which of the following is information that is not given in AIP approach and landing charts 862. The ICAO document concerning the provision of the AIS is Annex... to the Convention on Civ 863. Geographical co-ordinates indicating latitude and longitude are expressed in terms of: 864. A runway would not be reported as - flooded - unless: 865. The ASHTAM provides information on the status of activity of a volcano when a change in it 866. An integrated aeronautical information package consists of the following elements 867. The SIGMET service in the AIP is in the following part: 868. The information’ s on holding, approach and departure procedures, are found in the 869. On a flooded runway: 870. ATIS messages are updated at least: 871. When should ATIS broadcasts be updated? 872. How far in advance of the effective date is AIRAC information to be distributed? 873. The contents of Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP) are: 874. 25% of the runway of a runway is covered with standing water. How would ATC describe the s 875. On a wet runway: 876. It has been raining but the surface of a runway has no patches of standing water on it. Ho 877. Runway Visual Range is reported and passed to an aircraft when the visibility falls below: 878. The identification of each prohibited, restricted and danger area shall be composed by: 879. Operationally significant changes to the AIP shall be published in accordance with... proc 880. Temporary changes on specifications for AIP supplements of long duration and information o 881. The alerting service shall be provided to: 882. In order to avoid confusion, the identification numbers given to each prohibited area, res 883. What is ATIS? 884. Fuel available at an aerodrome will be published in: 885. A NOTAM is to be issued to addressees for whom the information is of operational significa 886. The information’ s concerning charges for aerodromes/heliports and Air Navigation S 887. What is an ASHTAM used for? 888. A controlled flight is: 889. Operationally significant changes to the AIP shall be published in accordance with: 890. Name the chapter in the AIP where one can find a list of significant differences between n 891. Voice ATIS broadcasts are: 892. Which of the following correctly identifies significant wind components (assuming the cont 893. On a damp runway: 894. Information concerning snow, ice and standing water on aerodrome pavement areas is to be r 895. A checklist of AIP supplements currently in force shall be issued at intervals of: 896. Which of the following has had a significant effect on the role and importance of aeronaut 897. What is the purpose of AIS? 898. What is the meaning of WIP? 899. In ATIS you receive information that there are " WATER PATCHES" on the runway. 900. AIP Supplements are: 901. The width of an advisory route is: 902. If there is sufficient time for information to be disseminated by other means, a NOTAM is 903. In which section of AIP are contained information elements relating to refuelling faciliti 904. Which of the following contains administration, financial and legislative information? 905. An AIP shall contain the following parts: 906. Operational Flight Information (OFIS) broadcasts should be broadcast via: 907. A pilot encountering windshear should report the fact to ATC: 908. Each AIRAC AIP amendment page shall display: 909. Select the acronym corresponding to the following definition: an special NOTAM series noti 910. An AIP shall consist of the following three parts: 911. If a runway is reported as damp, the braking action may be assumed to be: 912. A checklist of NOTAM currently in force shall be issued at the AFTN at intervals of: 913. In which section of AIP are contained information elements relating to areas and/or routes 914. The braking action for a specific runway is reported as " 0.36" . This means the 915. " A publication issued by or with the authority of a State and containing aeronautica 916. Aerodrome locators are published in: 917. The braking action for a specific runway is reported as " 0.25" . This means the 918. The volcano alert code used in field E of an ASHTAM is: 919. An AIRAC is: 920. Information concerning the establishment and withdrawal of, and premeditated significant c 921. For an aircraft in flight within an FIR, how would a report of severe turbulence be receiv 922. In which section of AIP are contained information elements relating to prohibited, restric 923. Which of the following phenomena would cause a SIGMET to be transmitted to aircraft flying 924. The system notifying in advance the circumstances requiring important changes in the metho 925. Detailed description of meteorological information provided at the aerodrome and an indica 926. In which chapter of the AIP can you find a list with " location indicators" ? 927. A notice providing information on Rules of the Air, Air Traffic Services and Air Navigatio 928. A detailed description of lower ATS routes can be found in part... section... of the AIP. 929. The temporary, long-term modification (3 months or more) and the short-term extensive or g 930. Which information is not included in Instrument Approach Charts (IAC) in the AIP 931. The duration of an ATIS message should not exceed: 932. At least how many days in advance of the effective date must AIRAC information be distribu 933. The closure of a runway for a year, because of maintenance, will be published: 934. Which part is AIP Part 2? 935. An aircraft in flight in an FIR would receive a report of severe turbulence in the... form 936. Which section of the AIP contains information relating to the provision of a Meteorologica 937. Which of the following describe the state of the surface of a runway? 938. Each contracting state shall provide an Aeronautical Information Service (AIS) in its terr 939. Which of the following is not considered when establishing Aerodrome Operating Minima? 940. " Instrument runways" are the following runways intended for the operation of a 941. What is a PAPI? 942. The aerodrome elevation is the height of: 943. For planning purposes, an aerodrome is categorised by aerodrome reference code. This consi 944. What is the name for a taxiway connected to a runway at an acute angle designed to allow a 945. The part of an aerodrome used for embarking and disembarking passengers, loading of cargo 946. A precision approach runway CAT II is an instrument runway served by ILS and visual aids i 947. " An area symmetrical about the extended runway centre line and adjacent to the end o 948. A runway may be contaminated by frozen water deposits. What are the three states of frozen 949. For planning purposes, an aerodrome is categorised by aerodrome reference code. This code 950. An aerodrome reference point is defined as the... 951. Objects located beyond 15 km radius of the aerodrome are normally considered to be obstacl 952. " A defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of take-off run available prepa 953. According with the " Aerodrome Reference Code" the " Code number 4" 954. What does code element 2 of the aerodrome reference code refer to? 955. The ICAO bird strike information system is also known as: 956. The " Aerodrome Reference Code" is a code composed of two elements which are re 957. Which " code letter" shall be chosen to identify a taxiway to be used by an air 958. Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies dimensions of aerodromes are codes 959. The abbreviation PAPI stands for: 960. Category II operation is: 961. " Code letter D" shall be chosen to identify a taxiway used by aircraft having 962. A ... is defined as an area of specified dimensions enclosing a runway and taxiway to prov 963. The STOPWAY is a defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of take-off run availab 964. According to the " Aerodrome Reference Code" , the " Code Letter E" s 965. Airfield reference code E is used for aircraft with a maximum wingspan of: 966. Do all runways require centreline markings? 967. In the case of parallel runways, each runway designation number shall be supplemented: 968. Which of the following correctly defines aerodrome operating minima? 969. Which of the following group shows the correct designators for three parallel runways seen 970. Aerodromes signs should be in the following configuration: 971. The width of a runway for an aerodrome with code number 4/D should not be less than: 972. In the " Aerodrome Reference Code" the code element 2 shall identify: 973. A detailed description of the visual ground aids can be found in ICAO Annex... 974. Where an operator establishes an aerodrome operating minima, the minima: 975. The main instrument runway at an aerodrome is 1875 m long. What is the radius of the Aerod 976. When the surface of a runway is soaked but there is no standing water, the correct term is 977. 4mm of rain is covering a runway. It is: 978. The length of a clearway should not exceed: 979. What is a " barrette" ? 980. Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains minimum specifications f 981. A volume of airspace extending upwards and outwards from an inner portion of the strip to 982. Minimum transition altitude over an airfield: 983. Which of the following systems describes an abbreviated precision approach path indicator: 984. Fixed distance markings on certain precision approach runways are: 985. Alternate yellow/green centreline lights of a taxiway indicate: 986. If runway centre line lights are installed on a runway with a length of 1800 m or more, th 987. How is a taxiway holding position marked? 988. Runway end lights shall be: 989. Fixed distance markings are placed: 990. What does a white line drawn across a runway indicate? 991. When taxiing on a surface with white markings, you are rolling on a: 992. Airfield beacons (aeronautical beacons) usually show: 993. Generally, when and where are stop bars provided? 994. The runway edge lights shall be: 995. Runway threshold identification lights, when provided, should be: 996. What is the colour of runway edge lights? 997. (Refer to figure 010-12)
The following figure indicates: 998. Which would you expect to find on a taxiway, at the closest point to a runway? 999. In the " PAPI" system the pilot during an approach will see the two units neare 1000. What colour are runway edge lights? 1001. Taxiway centre line lights other than an exit taxiway shall be: 1002. For an instrument runway, how far from the centre line of a runway is a " runway vaca 1003. An aircraft that has stopped for a lit “ Stop Bar” may continue taxiing whe 1004. The colour of a runway designation marking on a paved runway shall be: 1005. When a fixed distance marking has to be provided this marking shall commence at: 1006. An aiming point marking shall be provided at the approach end of a paved instrument runway 1007. What colour are apron markings? 1008. Runway centre line lights shall be fixed lights showing variable... from the threshold to 1009. What colour is an aerodrome beacon at a land aerodrome? 1010. In the " VASIS" , how many light units are in each wing bar? 1011. Where are taxiway centre line lights showing alternatively green and yellow installed? 1012. What is required if a stop bar is not provided at a taxi-holding position and the runway i 1013. " 3-BAR AVASIS" , " PAPI" and " T-VASIS" shall be provided 1014. Taxiway centre line lights on a taxiway other than an exit taxiway shall be fixed light sh 1015. On a runway with a length of 1500 m, how many pairs of touchdown zone markings are require 1016. What is/are required if a stop bar is not provided at a runway entrance and the runway is 1017. How many pairs of touchdown zone markings are required on a runway with a length of 2500 m 1018. Which of the following describes a location sign? 1019. Which of the following correctly describes runway end lights? 1020. Generally, when and where are stop bars provided? 1021. Mandatory signs on an aerodrome use which combination of the following colours: 1022. When on or close to the approach slope, the wing bar of a PAPI shows: 1023. Configuration A runway guard lights shall be provided at each taxiway/runway intersection 1024. Information signs (except location signs) consist of an inscription in... on a... backgrou 1025. The light shown by an " Aerodrome Identification Beacon" at a land aerodrome sh 1026. On a runway with a length of 2500 m, how far is the aiming point from the threshold? 1027. (Refer to figure 010-19)
The basic holding position shown in the figure will be used: 1028. In a precision approach category I lighting system, the centre line and crossbar lights sh 1029. Which of the following describes threshold lights? 1030. Taxiway edge lights shall be: 1031. What lighting is required for runways to be used for take-off in an operating minimum belo 1032. Which of the following is not a mandatory instruction sign: 1033. What shape is a landing direction indicator: 1034. A pilot making an approach sees 3 red lights and 1 white light on the wingbar of a PAPI. T 1035. Runway direction is indicated by two digits: 1036. What colour is taxiway edge lighting? 1037. (Refer to figure 010-13)
The following sign is a: 1038. What is the distance from the threshold to the beginning of the aiming point marking, if t 1039. Runway threshold wing bar lights shall be fixed unidirectional lights showing... in the di 1040. Are runway edge lights required to show at all angles in azimuth (omni-directionally)? 1041. The pre-threshold area of a runway fit for movement of aircraft is marked with: 1042. On a runway with a length of 1200 m, how far is the aiming point from the threshold? 1043. How many red lights must a pilot see, whose aircraft, in final approach, is following a no 1044. Taxiway edge lights shall be fixed lights showing: 1045. Runway threshold lights shall be: 1046. The " PAPI" shall consist of: 1047. With reference to colour coded taxiway lighting, which of the following is correct? 1048. Alternate taxiway centre line lights shall show... and... from their beginning near the ru 1049. The number of stripes on each side of the centre line of a runway which has a width of 45m 1050. Runway centre line markings shall be provided on: 1051. Where a runway has a displaced threshold and the whole of the runway is used for take-off, 1052. What is the principle requirement for a signals area on an aerodrome? 1053. What is a 'barrette'? 1054. How many red lights are showing on the PAPI when you are on the glide path on final? 1055. Mandatory signs consist of an inscription in .... on a .... background. 1056. When a fixed-distance marking has to be provided this marking shall commence at: 1057. Where a runway has a displaced threshold and the whole of the runway is used for take-off, 1058. Runway edge lights except in the case of a displaced threshold shall be: 1059. Where on a taxiway is the runway vacated sign located? 1060. Runway centre line lights must be provided: 1061. Mandatory instructions signs on an aerodrome shall have the following colours: 1062. Taxiway markings and aircraft stand markings are: 1063. High intensity obstacle lights should be used to indicate the presence of an object if its 1064. Low intensity obstacle lights on mobile objects shall be: 1065. Low intensity obstacle lights on fixed objects shall be: 1066. High intensity obstacle lights should be: 1067. Low intensity obstruction lights on vehicles and moving objects are: 1068. An obstacle that is required to be marked in the vicinity of an aerodrome where night oper 1069. Where a runway has a displaced threshold, what colour are the edge lights between the begi 1070. When a runway is 2000 metres in length, and taxi holding positions have not been establish 1071. The white arrows which are painted on the runway surface indicate: 1072. The pre-threshold area of a runway fit for use by aircraft as a stopway, but not for norma 1073. Where a runway has a displaced threshold what colour are the runway edge lights, between t 1074. How is a paved pre-threshold area which is greater than 60 m in length but not suitable fo 1075. Rescue and fire fighting (emergency) services provision is categorised according to physic 1076. Aerodrome rescue and fire fighting categories are based upon: 1077. The aerodrome category for rescue and fire fighting is based on: 1078. What colour are emergency vehicles painted that are used on the manoeuvring area of an aer 1079. Crash/Rescue (emergency) services provision is categorised according to physical character 1080. What is the fire fighting and rescue category of an aerodrome based on? 1081. Where a parking bay is provided at an aerodrome suitable for the parking of an aircraft wh 1082. Take-off distance available is defined as: 1083. " TODA" take-off distance available is: 1084. Which of the statements below describes the Accelerate Stop Distance Available (ASDA)? 1085. TODA is defined as: 1086. " Clearway" is defined rectangular area established to: 1087. "ASDA" (Acceleration Stop Distance Available) is: 1088. The declared take-off run available at an aerodrome is: 1089. Regarding declared airfield distances the ASDA is: 1090. For a precision cat II/III approach lighting system, what colour are the side row barrette 1091. What is the only object permitted to protrude through the plane of a precision approach CA 1092. Where no barrettes are used, each centre line light position of a category I precision app 1093. CAT I approach lights (centre lights and crossbars) shall be fixed lights showing... 1094. Which of the following alternatives describes the complete CAT I (Calvert) type of approac 1095. Runway-lead-in lighting should consist: 1096. In a precision approach category I lighting system, the single, two and three light source 1097. Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies dimensions of aerodromes is a speci 1098. For a full Calvert CAT 1 approach lighting system, how many bars are required and what is 1099. What is the length of an approach lighting system of a precision-approach runway CAT II: 1100. For an inbound aircraft, the PIC can be asked to provide which of the following: 1101. An aircraft flying to another contracting state: 1102. An aircraft arriving in the United Kingdom from the USA must land at: 1103. In case of aircraft registered in other Contracting States, which are not engaged in sched 1104. Which of the following documents need to be carried on International Air Navigation accord 1105. For inbound procedures, how many copies of the required forms are to be delivered to the p 1106. The documents for entry and departure of aircraft: 1107. The part of an aerodrome provided for the stationing of aircraft for the purpose of embark 1108. Contracting states shall not require the authorized agent or pilot-in-command to deliver t 1109. An aircraft which is not engaged in scheduled international air services and which is maki 1110. When de-insecting is required by a Contracting State as a public health measure, the de-in 1111. Unaccompanied baggage carried by air shall be cleared under the procedure applicable to: 1112. The obligation of a carrier to transport any person away from the territory of a Contracti 1113. When cargo, unaccompanied baggage or stores are not unladen at their intended destination 1114. On a general declaration form, the following data can be found: 1115. The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of persons and their baggage in intern 1116. Medical examination is normally limited to those people arriving from an area infected wit 1117. What is the purpose of a Crew Member's Certificate (CMC)? 1118. What documentation is required by persons travelling by air, for entry into a state? 1119. When an airline crew member, in the exercise of her/his duties, travels to another Contrac 1120. In cases where a visitor travelling by air holds a valid passport and no visa is required 1121. Contracting states shall carry out the handling, forwarding and clearance of airmail and s 1122. Which ICAO annex is dedicated to facilitate the passage of passengers at the aerodromes? 1123. The crew member certificate (CMC) shall be accepted by each Contracting State for identifi 1124. The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of cargo and other articles on interna 1125. Except in special circumstances determined by the public authorities concerned, when a pas 1126. Which annex deals with the entry into a country of passengers and baggage? 1127. Which one of the statements is correct: 1128. A contracting state which continues to require the presentation of a cargo manifest shall, 1129. COSPAS-SARSAT is: 1130. The units responsible for promoting efficient organization of search and rescue service ar 1131. An accident is an occurrence associated with the operation of an aircraft which: 1132. A situation in which apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft. To which emergen 1133. Which of the following statements describes the Uncertainty Phase (INCERFA)? 1134. Which of the following statements describes the Distress Phase (DETRESFA)? 1135. Which of the following are emergency/SAR frequencies?
1. 121.500 MHz
1136. Search and Rescue services within the territory of ICAO contracting states are provided: 1137. Which of the following statements regarding Alerting service is correct? 1138. The phases related to an aircraft in emergency or believed in emergency are: 1139. The different emergency phases (in correct order) are: 1140. Which of the following statements describes the Alert Phase (ALERFA)? 1141. DETRESFA is where: 1142. Contracting States shall establish a rescue co-ordination centre: 1143. A Rescue Unit is: 1144. An aircraft is in emergency when: 1145. " A situation wherein apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occ 1146. When it becomes apparent that an aircraft is in difficulty, the decision to initiate the a 1147. A turboprop aeroplane is performing an over water flight, which takes it further than 340 1148. Whenever a distress signal and/or message or equivalent transmission is intercepted by the 1149. The colour identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing 1150. An operator shall not operate an aeroplane certified to JAR25, across an area in which sea 1151. Packages of supplies to survivors may be dropped from aircraft. A red streamer attached to 1152. What colour streamer identifies food and water dropped to survivors? 1153. The colour identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing 1154. What is the meaning of V seen on the ground in the vicinity of an aircraft crash site? 1155. Survival equipment, dropped by SAR and containing food and water will be packed in contain 1156. The colour identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing 1157. When a PIC observes that either another aircraft or a surface craft is in distress he shal 1158. What colour streamer identifies medical supplies dropped to survivors? 1159. The following frequencies are carried by SAR aircraft: 1160. Three aircraft, (1), (2) and (3), arrive successively at ten minute intervals, overhead th 1161. You are flying over the NAT region when you intercept a distress call. You record the mess 1162. Give the colour of medical supplies packages dropped by SAR aircraft: 1163. What colour streamer would identify cooking equipment dropped to survivors? 1164. Which of the following frequencies are used for emergency operations? 1165. The colour identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing 1166. Which of the following is NOT an international distress frequency? 1167. The ground - air visual code for: " REQUIRE ASSISTANCE" is: 1168. (Refer to figure 010-10)
What is the meaning of the following ground-air visual signal? 1169. The Ground-Air signal " NN" means: 1170. (Refer to figure 010-07)
What is the meaning of the following ground-air visual signal? 1171. Which signal indicates 'Require assistance'? 1172. Ground-air signals code for survivors: What is the meaning of an X displayed on the ground 1173. Which of the following signals is a distress signal? 1174. (Refer to figure 010-09)
What is the meaning of the following ground-air visual signal? 1175. (Refer to figure 010-02)
Using the ground - air visual signal code, the letter similar 1176. What doe the signal Z mean? 1177. An aircraft is flying over a mountainous region in which a search is being carried out to 1178. Which of the following ground signals is used by survivors to request assistance? 1179. You are flying in a mountainous region and you see the letter X on the ground. What does t 1180. (Refer to figure 010-05)
What is the meaning of this SAR visual signal when used by sur 1181. (Refer to figure 010-02)
Using the ground - air visual code the letter(s) similar to th 1182. What does the SAR ground signal 'V' mean? 1183. (Refer to figure 010-06)
What is the meaning of the following ground-air visual signal? 1184. With regard to SAR operations, what does the code X mean (for use by survivors)? 1185. (Refer to figure 010-01)
Using the ground-air visual code, the symbol meaning WE HAVE F 1186. Which signal indicates 'operations complete'? 1187. What frequency does the emergency locator beacon transmit on? 1188. In the ground/air emergency code the symbol X means: 1189. In the ground/air emergency code the symbol V means: 1190. (Refer to figure 010-08)
What is the meaning of the following ground-air visual signal? 1191. In the ground to air emergency signalling code, the code symbol X means: 1192. What is the meaning of the symbol V seen from the air over a crash site? 1193. (Refer to figure 010-04)
The ground - air visual code illustrated means: 1194. At night an aircraft observes a luminous signal requesting help. To indicate that he has r 1195. (Refer to figure 010-03)
What is the meaning of this symbol in the ground air visual si 1196. What is the meaning of SAR signal "N" when used by survivors on the ground: 1197. (Refer to figure 010-11)
What is the meaning of the following ground-air visual signal? 1198. Survivors of an aircraft accident, requiring medical assistance will display the following 1199. Which of the following statements is correct concerning the flight crew compartment door? 1200. Each contracting state shall establish measures to ensure that the aircraft operator is in 1201. If unidentified baggage is found at an airport: 1202. Where are aircraft that have been subjected to unlawful interference to be parked on an ae 1203. Which of the following applies to general declaration? 1204. A State shall take adequate measures for the safety of passengers and crew of an aircraft 1205. What is required if security personnel on board are to be armed? 1206. The movement area of an airfield, the adjacent lands and buildings or the parts of them wi 1207. When a member state allows police officers, security staff, bodyguards or other agents of 1208. Each State, according ICAO Annex 17, shall ensure the establishment of a security programm 1209. Each contracting state shall designate an appropriate authority within its administration 1210. If mixing or contact between passengers subjected to security control and other persons no 1211. For the transport of potentially disruptive passengers some supplementary safeguards are t 1212. An aircraft shall not carry munitions of war: 1213. If an aircraft subjected to an act of unlawful seizure has landed on its territory, each C 1214. The radar controller suspects that you are experiencing unlawful interference. What should 1215. Which of the following statements is correct with respect to unlawful interference? 1216. Each member state should designate an appropriate authority with the administration to be 1217. The ICAO Annex 17 comprise rules in order to establish security measures for passengers: 1218. An airport security program shall be established by each State for: 1219. Where unaccompanied baggage is carried on board an aircraft: 1220. When an aircraft subjected to an unlawful interference has landed it shall notify by the m 1221. Annex 17 to the ICAO convention assigns responsibility to member states to implement: 1222. Each State of ICAO Annex 17 shall ensure the establishment of a security programme 1223. Each member state should designate an appropriate authority with its administration to be 1224. What is a state required to do regarding the aeroplane which has been unlawfully interfere 1225. A State shall provide assistance to an aircraft subjected to an act of unlawful seizure. T 1226. A passenger's sporting shotgun may be carried on an aircraft: 1227. Where a parking bay is not provided at an aerodrome for the use by aircraft that have been 1228. Contracting states are required to have procedures in place for the safety of passengers a 1229. The national civil aviation security programme shall be established by: 1230. Member states should introduce specific security measures for the air transport of the fol 1231. When mixing or contact does take place between passengers subjected to security control an 1232. The aim of aviation security is the following: 1233. Referring to the operational aspects in the unlawful seizure acts, it can be said: 1234. Standards and Recommended Practices for Security are contained in ICAO ANNEX... 1235. Which Annex of the Chicago Convention covers Security? 1236. How far from other parking areas or installations is the parking area designated for aircr 1237. When a person is found inadmissible and is returned to the operator for transport away fro 1238. Who is responsible to establish security measures? 1239. Definition of " security, the ICAO Annex 17" , is a combination of measures: 1240. Passenger A has passed through security and meets passenger B who has not been through sec 1241. Who is responsible for the initiation of an accident investigation? 1242. Just before arriving on the apron, taxiing inadvertently on the grass, a wheel falls into 1243. When an accident occurs in the territory of a Contracting State the investigation will be 1244. Which of the following defines an incident? 1245. Upon receipt of the modification and a request by the state of occurrence for participatio 1246. The conducting of an accident investigation may be delegated, in whole or in part, to: 1247. The State conducting an accident investigation shall: 1248. Which of the following would NOT constitute an accident: 1249. The responsibility to institute an investigation into the circumstances of an accident res 1250. The accident investigation preliminary report shall be submitted to appropriate States and 1251. The objective of the investigation of an accident or incident shall be the: 1252. When taxiing from the stand to the runway a person on the ground is injured by the jet bla 1253. What is the primary objective of an accident/incident investigation? 1254. If an emergency situation, which endangers the safety of the aeroplane, necessitates the t 1255. The purpose of an aircraft accident investigation shall be: 1256. Which of the following, according to ICAO Annex 13, shall be entitled to appoint an accred 1257. Who is responsible, under Annex 13 of the Chicago convention for the initation of an accid 1258. During taxi to the runway for take off, the aircraft is accidentally taxied onto the grass 1259. Which of the following would be considered to be an accident?