1. "3-BAR AVASIS", "PAPI" and "T-VASIS" shall be provided for aircraft having eye-to-wheel heights, when in the flare attitude, not exceeding:
Approximately 16 m.
2. "A publication issued by or with the authority of a State and containing aeronautical information of a lasting character essential to air navigation" is the definition of:
Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP).
3. "Cabotage" refers to:
domestic air services ;
4. "ESSENTIAL TRAFFIC" is that controlled flight to which the provision of separation by ATC is applicable, but which, in relation to a particular controlled flight is not separated therefore by the appropriate separation minima. Whenever separation minima is not applied. The following flights are considered essential traffic one to each other.
All IFR flight in controlled airspaces and controlled VFR.
5. "TODA" take-off distance available is:
The length of the take-off run available plus the length of clearway available (if provided).
6. A "precision approach" is a direct instrument approach...
using bearing, elevation and distance information.
7. A braking action given by ATS of 0.25 and below is :
Poor
8. A checklist of NOTAM currently in force shall be issued at the AFTN at intervals of :
Not more than one month
9. A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth to a specified upper limit is:
Control zone.
10. A controlled flight is requested to inform the appropriate ATC unit whenever the average True Air Speed at cruising level varies or is expected to vary from that given in the flight plan by plus or minus:
0.05
11. A lower limit of a Control Area shall be established at a height above the ground level or water of not less than:
200 metres.
12. A MEDIUM wake turbulence aircraft is following a HEAVY category aircraft on a radar vectored approach to land. What is the radar separation minima to be applied?
Normal radar separation of 5 nm.
13. A minimum vertical separation shall be provided until aircraft are etablished inbound on the ILS localizer course and/or MLS final approach track. This minimum is, when independent parallel approaches are being conducted :
300 m (1000 ft)
14. A non-scheduled flight which is either over-flying or stopping at another member state but not for dropping off or picking up persons or cargo must give advance notification of at least:
1 hour
15. A pilot receiving an IFR clearance from ATC should:
read back the entire clearance as required by regulation.
16. A precision approach is a direct instrument approach:
using at least one source of bearing information and one source of elevation or distance information.
17. A runway may be contaminated by frozen water deposits. What are the three states of frozen water reported by ATC?
Snow, ice and slush.
18. A separation minimum shall be applied between a light or MEDIUM aircraft and a HEAVY aircraft and between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft when the heavier aircraft is making a low or missed approach and the lighter aircraft is utilizing an opposite direction runway for take off, this minimum is :
2 minutes
19. A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals:
Raising arm and hand horizontally in front of body, fingers extended then clenching fist.
20. A so called "Visual Approach" can be performed :
during IFR flights, if there is permanent sight on the movement area and the underlying ground;
21. A Special Air Report comprises a number of sections. In section I the pilot fills in :
a position report, including aircraft identification, height, position and time ;
22. A State shall provide assistance to an aircraft subjected to an act of unlawful seizure. This assistance includes :
provision of navigation aids, air traffic services and permission to land
23. A strayed aircraft is :
An aircraft which has deviated significantly from its intended track or which reports that it is lost
24. A turboprop aeroplane is performing an overwater flight, which takes it further than 340 NM away from an aerodrome where an emergency landing could be performed. Normal cruising speed is 180 kt. One engine out airspeed is 155 kt.
Life jackets must be available for all occupants.
25. A turn executed by the aircraft during the initial approach between the end of the outbound track and the beginning of the intermediate or final approach track is a:
Base turn
26. A type rating is required:
any type of aircraft whenever considered necessary by the Licensing Authority
27. A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as C has to maintain the following minima of flight visibility and distance from clouds
8 km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds
28. Above flight level FL 290 the vertical flight separation between aircraft on the same direction is:
4 000 feet.
29. According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for a CPL (A) who has satisfactorily followed an completed an integrated flying training course shall have completed as a pilot of aeroplanes having a certificate of airworthiness issued or accepted by a JAA Member State at least:
150 hours of flight time
30. According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for an IR(A) shall hold a PPL (A)including a night qualification or CPL(A) and shall have completed at least 50 hours :
Cross country flight time as pilot-in-command in aeroplanes or helicopters of which at least 10 hours shall be in aeroplanes.
31. According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for ATPL (A)shall have completed as a pilot of aeroplane at least 1.500 hours of flight time, including
500 hours in multi-pilot operations on aeroplanes type certificated in accordance with JAR/FAR 25 or JAR/FAR 23.
32. According to JAR-FCL, an examiner's authorisation is valid for :
Not more than three years
33. According to JAR-FCL, an instrument rating is valid for :
one year
34. According to JAR-FCL, the validity of type ratings and multi-engine class ratings will be one year from the date :
Of issue
35. According to the "Aerodrome Reference Code", the "Code Letter E" shall identify an aircraft wing span of:
52 m up to but not including 65 m.
36. According to the Chicago Convention, aircraft of Contracting States shall have the right to make flights into or in transit non-stop across the territory of other contracting States and to make stops for non-traffic purposes without the necessity of obtaining prior permission. This applies to the following flights:
To aircraft not engaged in scheduled international air services.
37. Aircraft flying along the same track may be separated by DME-distances from the same DME and it is confirmed that the aircraft have passed each other. Specify the shortest difference in DME-distance to make it possible for one aircraft to climb or descend
10 NM
38. Alerting service shall be provided:
For all controlled flight, to any aircraft known or believed to be subject of unlawful interference, and in so far as practicable to all aircraft having filed a flight plan or otherwise known to the ATS.
39. An AIP shall contain the following parts:
GEN, ENR, AD
40. An air traffic control unit:
may ask an aircraft to temporarily change its call sign for safety reasons when there is a risk of confusion between two or more similar call signs.
41. An aircraft having sustained damage while on the territory of a Contracting State other than the State of Registry may fly without fare-paying passengers to an airport at which it can be restored to an airworthy condition if:
It receives permission of the State of Registry.
42. An aircraft in climb or descent is considered to have crossed a level when the SSR mode C derived level information indicates that it has passed this level in the required direction by:
Airspace C
43. An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft, if equipped with SSR transponder shall, unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate ATS unit, select one of the following code on mode "A";";2002-01-25 30805;010 09 01 00;"*The aerodrome category for rescue and fire fighting is based on:
Airspace F
44. An aircraft making a radar approach should be directed to consider executing a missed approach if the aircraft is not visible on the radar display for any significant interval during the :
AIP, including amendment service; supplements to AIP; NOTAM and pre-flight information bulletin (PIB); AIC; checklists and summuries
45. An aircraft shall display, if so equipped, an anti-collision light:
Security.
46. An aircraft which is intercepted by another aircraft shall set its transponder to:
42
47. An aircraft which is not engaged in scheduled international air services and which is making a flight to or through any designated airport of a Contracting State and is admitted temporarily free of duty shall be allowed to remain within that State without security for customs duty.
Flight information service and alerting service.
48. An airport security programme shall be established by each State for:
switch his landing lights on and off twice or, if he is not so equipped, his navigation lights twice.
49. An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall hold
10 KT
50. An applicant for a commercial pilot licence-aeroplance shall have completed not less than ........ hours of cross country flight time as pilot in command including a cross country flight totalling not less than ........ km (-NM), in the course of which full stop landings at two different aerodromes shall be made. The hours and distance refered are :
2 KT
51. An applicant for a CPL (A) shall have completed at least the following flight time:
When passing the transition level
52. An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than ...... hours, either as pilot in command or made up by not less than ...... hours as pilot-in-command and the additional flight time as co-pilot performing, under the supervision of the pilot-in-command the duties and functions of a pilot in command provided that the method of supervision employed is acceptable to the licensing authority. The stated above hours are respectively :
shall not be transmitted on the voice channel of an ILS
53. An approaching aircraft may descent below the MSA if :
below 1 500 m (5.000 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greater
54. An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted and receive flight information service if requested, is classified as
Class B.
55. An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted IFR flights are subject to Air Trafic Control Service and are separated from other IFR flights. All flights receive traffic information as far as is practical, is classified as
on the initiative of the aircraft commander
56. An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control service and are separated from each other is classified as
If the commander so requests
57. An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control service and IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and from VFR flights VFR flights are separated from IFR flights and receive traffic information in respect of other VFR flights, is classified as :
Airspace C
58. An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all participating IFR flights receive an air traffic advisory service and all flights receive flight information service if requested, is classified
Airspace F
59. An integrated aeronautical information package consists of the following elements
AIP, including amendment service; supplements to AIP; NOTAM and pre-flight information bulletin (PIB); AIC; checklists and summuries
60. Annex 17 to the Convention of Chicago covers:
Security.
61. At least how many days in advance of the effective date must AIRAC information be distributed?
42
62. At least which services have to be provided by ATS within a flight information region?
Flight information service and alerting service.
63. At night an aircraft observes a luminous signal requesting help. To indicate that he has received these ground signals, the pilot must:
switch his landing lights on and off twice or, if he is not so equipped, his navigation lights twice.
64. At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean head-wind component significant change is :
10 KT
65. At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean tail-wind component significant change is :
2 KT
66. At what moment during the approach should the reported airfield altimeter setting be set?
When passing the transition level
67. ATIS broadcast
shall not be transmitted on the voice channel of an ILS
68. ATIS broadcast messages containing departure and arrival information should include cloud cover, when the clouds are :
below 1 500 m (5.000 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greater
69. ATS airspaces where IFR and VFR flights are permited, all flights are subject to air traffic control service and are separated from each other are classified as:
Class B.
70. Change from IFR to VFR will always take place :
on the initiative of the aircraft commander
71. Changing of flight rules from IFR to VFR is possible
If the commander so requests
72. Clearances will be issued by an ATC unit for the purpose of:
Achieving separation between controlled flights
73. Clearence to land or any alternative clearence received from the non-radar controller should normally be passed to the aircraft before it reaches a distance of :
2 NM from touchdown
74. Code letter D shall be chosen to identify a taxiway used by aircraft having an outer main gear wheel span of less than 9 m. The taxiway width shall be:
18 m
75. Contracting States shall establish a rescue co-ordination centre:
In each search and rescue region.
76. Control Area (CTA) is defined as follows:
A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the earth.
77. Cruising level IFR during cruise within controlled airspace shall be given as flight level (FL)
Above the transition altitude when applicable
78. Dependent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that : the missed approach track for one approach diverges by :
at least 30° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach
79. Detailed description of meteorological information provided at the aerodrome and an indication of which meteorological office is responsible, is in the following part of the AIP
AD
80. During a take-off into IMC conditions with low ceiling the pilot should contact departure control:
When advised by Tower.
81. During a visual circling, descent below MDA/H shall not be made until: A) Visual reference has been established and can be maintained. B) The pilot has the landing threshold in sight. C) The required obstacle clearance can be maintained and the aircraft is in a positions to carry out a landing. D) A landing clearance has been received by ATC.
A, B and C
82. During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) in the intermediate phase of this missed approach is :
30 m (98 ft)
83. During an instrument approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) of the initial approach segment primary area is equal to :
300 m (984 ft)
84. During flight below the transition altitude, the altimeter of an aircraft shall be set to
QNH and its vertical position is expressed in terms of altitude.
85. During flight through the transition layer the vertical position of the aircraft should be expressed as
altitude above mean sea level during descent
86. During radar-control, a "radar-controller" shall issue a missed-approach instruction, in case the "tower-controller" has not issued a "landing-clearance" at the moment the aircraft is :
2 NM from touch-down;
87. Each contracting state shall designate an appropriate authority within its administration to be responsible for the development, implementation and maintenance of the national civil aviation security programme. The said appropriate authority :
Shall be specified to ICAO
88. Each contracting state shall establish measures to ensure that the aircraft operator is informed when passengers are obliged to travel because they have been the subject of judicial or administrative proceedings in order that appropriate security mesures can be taken
the state above question in incomplete. The pilot in command and the aircraft operator are to be informed
89. Each State, according ICAO Annex 17, shall ensure the establishment of a security programme:
at each airport.
90. Except otherwise established by the appropriate ATS authority a Surveillance Radar Approach (SRA) shall be terminated at a distance from the touchdown of:
2 NM.
91. Flight information service provided to flights shall include the provision of information concerning collision hazards to aircraft operating in airspace classes:
C to G (inclusive)
92. Flying exactly on your current flight plan route, you receive and acknowledge the following instruction from the radar controller: "Turn immediately, continue heading 050° until further advised". Time now is 18:36 UTC. At 18:37 UTC you find out that radio communication cannot be stablished again and you have to return to your current flight plan route:
On the nearest way.
93. For aircraft flying over the high seas, which rules shall be in force?
The rules established under the Convention of international civil aviation.
94. For controlled traffic that shall be separated in the vicinity of an airport, separation minima may be reduced:
When the commander in the following aircraft has the preceding aircraft in sight and is able to maintain own separation
95. For non precision approaches, the Final Approach Fix (FAF) is set at a specified distance from the threshold of the instrument runway. What is the maximum this distance can be?
19 km (10 nm)
96. For the construction of precision approaches, which is the operationally preferred glide path angle?
3°
97. For the transport of potentially disruptive passengers some supplementary safeguards are to be observed such as :
boarding prior to all passengers
98. For VFR flights, continuous two way radio communication with ATS is required in the following airspace classes.
B, C, D.
99. Generally, when and where are stop bars provided?
They are positioned at all runway-holding positions for runways used when RVR is less than 350 m.
100. How is a paved pre-threshold area which is greater than 60 m in length but not suitable for use by aircraft, marked?
By yellow chevrons pointing towards the threshold.
101. If a stepdown fix is established on the final approach track, a descend shall be made so as to :
pass the fix not below the specified crossing altitude.
102. If an arriving aircraft is making a straight in approach a departing aircraft may take off in any direction:
until five minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the threshold of the instrument runway.
103. If an ATC clearance is not suitable to the pilot in command of an aircraft:
He may request and, if practicable, obtain an amended clearance.
104. If in an intrument departure procedure the track to be followed by the aeroplane is published, the pilot is expected:
To correct for known wind to remain within the protected airspace.
105. If no ICAO identifier has been attributed to an alternate airport (box 16) of a flight plan form...
write ZZZZ in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) ALTN/followed by the name of the airport.
106. If radio communication failure is experienced on an IFR flight in IMC, generally the pilot shall:
Try to get contact on other frequencies either ground or aircraft stations - Transmit being indicating important details required 2 times.
107. If runway centre line lights are installed on a runway with a length of 1800 m or more, they shall have the following colours on the last 900 m:
Alternate red and white from 900 m to 300 m and red from 300 m to the runway end.
108. If you lose the necessary visual references while "circling visual'. you should:
make an initial climbing turn towards the landing runway and when overhead the airport climb on the missed approach track
109. If, during a visual circling, visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, the pilot shall:
Make an initial climbing turn towards the landing runway and follow the missed approach procedures.
110. In a holding pattern all turns are to be made at a :
rate of 3°per second or at a bank angle of 25°, which ever requires the lesser bank.
111. In a holding pattern, turns are to be made:
At a bank angle of 25° or at a rate of 3° per second, whichever requires the lesser bank.
112. In a precision approach (ILS), generally glide path intersection occurs at heights above runway elevation from:
300m (984 ft) to 900m (2955 ft).
113. In a precision approach (ILS), the final approach segment begins at the:
FAP
114. In a precision approach category I lighting system, the centre line and crossbar lights shall be:
Fixed lights showing variable white.
115. In a precision approach category I, lighting system, the single, two and three light sources on the centre line have a length of:
300 m.
116. In a procedure turn (45°/180°), a 45° turn away from the outbound track is performed from the start of turn for categories A and B aircraft for:
1 minute.
117. In a straight departure, the initial departure track is of the aligment of the runway centre line within:
15°.
118. In an instrument departure procedure the minimum obstacle clearance at the departure end of runway equals:
0 ft.
119. In an offset entry into an omnidirectional racetrack procedure, the time on the 30° offset track is limited to:
1 minute 30 seconds.
120. In cases where a visitor travelling by air holds a valid passport and no visa is required of him, contracting states
shall not require him to obtain any other identity document from their consultates or operators prior to initiate the flight
121. In general, during a straight-in approach, the MDH cannot be below:
the OCH
122. In order to meet wake turbulence criteria, for arriving aircraft and using timed approaches, what minima shall be applied to aircraft landing behind a heavy or a medium aircraft ?
medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft - 2 minutes
123. In the "PAPI" system the pilot during an approach will see the two units nearest the runway as red and the two units farthest from the runway as white when:
On or close to the approach slope.
124. In the "VASIS" , how many light units are in each wing bar?
3.
125. In the event of a delay for an uncontrolled flight which a flight plan has been submitted, the flight plan should be amended or a new flight plan submitted and the old one cancelled, when:
The delay is more than 60 minutes of the estimated time off-blocks.
126. In the ILS-approach, the OCA is referenced to:
Mean sea level.
127. In the vicinity of an aerodrome that is going to be used by the aircraft the vertical position of the aircraft shall be expressed in:
altitude above sea level on or below the transition altitude
128. In which airspace classes has separation between IFR flights and VFR flights to be provided by ATC?
B, C.
129. In which chapter of the AIP can you find a list with "location indicators"?
GEN
130. In which section of the AIP are contained information elements relating to prohibited and dangerous areas ?
ENR.
131. Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that a no transgression zone (NTZ) of at least :
610 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the radar display
132. Is the length of the outbound leg of a holding pattern always expressed in terms of time?
No, where DME is used it may be specified in terms of distance.
133. Just before arriving on the apron, taxiing inadvertently on the grass, a wheel falls into a hole, which seriously damages the aircraft and obliges the crew to delay the departure.
This is an accident and the crew must follow the procedure relevant to this case.
134. Lights on and in the vicinity of aerodromes may be turned off, provided that they can be again brought into operation :
At least one hour before the expected arrival of an aircraft
135. Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed provided that the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true air speed of 40 Kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft will be
3 minutes
136. Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed will be
10 minutes
137. Low intensity obstacle lights on mobile objects shall be:
Flashing red or preferably yellow.
138. May further ratings under JAR-FCL requirements be obtained be other States than the State of licence issue and if yes, by whom are such ratings entered into the licence?
Yes, ratings may be obtained by any JAA Member State, they will be entered into the licence by State of licence issue.
139. Member states should introduce specific security measures for the air transport of the following groups of potentially disruptive passengers defined below :
Deportees, inadmissible persons and persons in lawful custody
140. Minimum sector altitudes published on approach charts provide at least the following obstacle clearance:
300 m within 25 nm of the homing facility associated with the approach procedure for that aerodrome.
141. Normally all turns, which are requested by a radar controller have to be executed as:
Standard rate turns if not otherwise instructed by ATC.
142. Normally missed approach procedures are based on a nominal missed approach climb gradient of:
2.5%.
143. Obstacle clearance for an ILS approach is based on the assumption that the pilot does not deviate from the centre line more than :
half scale deflection of the localizer indicator.
144. On an IFR approach when can an aircraft convert to a visual approach ?
at any time when requested by the pilot and if cleared by the Authority of the State
145. On IFR flights, who is responsible for the prevention of collision with terrain? A) The Pilot. B) ATC, when IFR flights are vectored by radar. C) The Pilot and ATC in close co-operation. D) ATC, if the respective unit is equipped with SSR.
Combination of A and B.
146. One minute separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on tracks diverging by at least:
45° immediately after take-off.
147. One of the functions ensured by a radar control unit for the provision of approach control service is:
To conduct surveillance radar approaches.
148. One of the main objectives of ICAO is to :
develop principles and techniqe for international aviation
149. Referring to the operational aspects in the unlawful seizure acts, it can be said:
The contracting States will make provisions to ensure that an aircraft affected by an unlawful seizure act, which has landed in their territory, world be retained, unless its departure is justified to protect lives.
150. Related to the three entry sectors in a holding pattern, there is a zone of flexibility on either side of the sectors boundaries of:
5°.
151. Required Navigation Performance (RNP) shall be prescribed
by states on the basis of regional air navigation agreements
152. Runway end lights shall be:
fixed unidirectional lights showing red in the direction of the runway.
153. Runway threshold lights shall be:
Fixed unidirectional lights showing green in the direction of approach to the runway.
154. Separation by ATC shall be provided:
Between IFR and VFR flights in airspace class C.
155. Subject to conditions specified by the appropriate ATS authority, a radar controller may request radar-controlled aircraft to adjust their speed when established on intermediate and final approach. This speed adjustment should not be more than:
+/- 20 kt.
156. Taxiway edge lights shall be:
Fixed showing blue.
157. The "Aerodrome Reference Code" is a code composed of two elements which are related to the aeroplane performance characteristics and dimensions. These elements are a combination of a number and a letter as in the example under listed:
2B.
158. The "estimated total time" in block 16 of a VFR flight plan is the estimated time :
required by the aircraft from take-off to arrive overhead the destination airport.
159. The "VMC and own separation" ATC clearance is used for a controlled flight to cross the level of another controlled flight when:
Requested by the pilot, during the day light and authorized by the state overflown.
160. The abbreviation PAPI stands for:
Precision Approach Path Indicator.
161. The accident investigation preliminary report shall be submitted to appropriate States and to the ICAO, in:
one of the working languages of ICAO
162. The additional letter Z in the designator of an ATS route (e.g. A126Z) has the following meaning:
RNP 1 route at and below FL190. All turns on the route between 30° and 90° shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments defined with a radius of 15 NM.
163. The aim of aviation security is the following:
Safeguard international civil aviation operations against acts of unlawful interference.
164. The ASHTAM provides information on the status of activity of a volcano when a change in its activity is, or is expected to be of operational significance. This information is provided using the volcano level of colour code. When volcanic eruption in progress or volcano dangerous, eruption likely, with ash plume/cloud is reported above FL 250 or is expected to rise above FL 250, the level of alert colour code is
RED
165. The ATIS broadcast message should, whenever practicable, not exceed
30 seconds
166. The certificate of registration shall:
Be carried on board the aircraft at all times.
167. The color identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing survival equipment should take the form of coloured streamers according to the following code:
Red for medical supplies and first aid equipment.
168. The conducting of an accident investigation may be delegated, in whole or in part, to:
The State of Registry or the state of the Operator.
169. The criterion which shall be used to determine that a specific level is occupied by an aircraft shall be, (except that appropriate ATS authorities may specify a smaller criterion):
+/- 300 ft.
170. The definition of "Manoeuvring Area" is:
That part of an aerodrome to be used for take-off, landing and taxiing of aircraft, excluding apron(s).
171. The documents for entry and departure of aircraft :
are accepted in handwritten block lettering in ink
172. The entry into a holding pattern shall be according to:
Magnetic heading in relation to the three entry sectors.
173. The following applies for aircraft equipped with ACAS: A) The ACAS capability of an aircraft will normally not be known to ATC controllers. B) Separation minima may be reduced by ATC between aircraft equipped with ACAS. C) As the ACAS capability of an aircraft is known to ATC, pilots may be required to maintain their own separation in cruise. D) The ATS procedures to be applied to aircraft with ACAS shall be identical to those applicable to non-ACAS equipped aircraft.
A and D
174. The height of the marks on the fuselage (or equivalent structure) and on the vertical tail surfaces of heavier than air aircraft shall be
at least 30 centimetres
175. The height of the marks under the wings of heavier than air aircraft shall be:
at least 50 centimetres.
176. The holder of a pilot licence when acting as co-pilot performing under the supervision of the pilot in command the functions and duties of a pilot in command shall be entitled to be credit :
in full with his flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot licence
177. The ICAO Annex 17 comprise rules in order to establish security measures for passengers:
Cabin baggage, checked baggage, cargo and other goods, access control and airport design
178. The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of cargo and other articles on international flights is :
annex 9
179. The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of persons and their baggage in international flights is :
annex 9
180. The identification of each prohibited, restricted and danger area shall be composed by :
The nationality letters for location indicators assigned to the state or territory, followed the letters P. R and D and figures
181. The International Civil Aviation Convention Annex containing standards and recommended practices for Personnel Licensing is :
Annex 1
182. The International Civil Aviation Organisation (I.C.A.O.) was established by the international convention of :
Chicago
183. The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) establishes:
standards and recommended international practices for contracting member states.
184. The international convention defining rules relative to the responsibilities of international air carriers for the carriage of passengers, baggage and freight is the :
Warsaw Convention.
185. The international convention defining rules relative to the responsibilities of international air carriers for the carriage of passengers, baggage and freight is the:
Warsaw Convention.
186. The International Standards and Recommended Practices, Security (Safeguarding International Civil Aviation Against Acts of Unlawful Interference) document, designated as Annex 17 of the Chicago Convention, stipulates:
the safety measures required at an airport.
187. The light shown by an "Aerodrome Identification Beacon" at a land aerodrome shall be:
Green colour identification given by Morse Code.
188. The longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME, and each aircraft "on track" uses DME stations, is:
20 NM.
189. The longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME, and each aircraft on track uses DME stations, is:
20 NM
190. The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed, is:
10 minutes.
191. The minimum age for a ATPL (A) shall be at least:
21 years.
192. The minimum age for a CPL (A) shall be at least:
18 years.
193. The minimum age for a PPL (A) shall be at least:
17 years.
194. The minimum radar separation to be provided to aircraft established on the localizer course shall be:
3.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course.
195. The minimum sector altitude provides 300 metres obstacle clearance within how many miles radius from the navigation facility upon which the instrument approach procedure is predicated:
25 NM (46 km).
196. The minimum separation of a MEDIUM aircraft taking-off from the same runway behind a HEAVY aircraft is:
2 minutes
197. The movement area of an airfield, the adjacent lands and buildings or the parts of them with controlled access is called:
Aeronautical part
198. The objectives of ICAO was ratified by the :
Chicago convention 1944
199. The obligation of a carrier to transport any person away from the territory of a Contracting State shall terminate from the moment such person has been definitely admitted in other Contracting State of destination.
The stated above is correct.
200. The phases related to an aircraft in emergency or believed in emergency are:
uncertainty phase, alert phase, distress phase.
201. The pilot in command of an aircraft: 1 - must comply immediately to all instructions received from ATC. 2 - is responsible only if he is the "pilot flying". 3 - may deviate from air regulations for safety reasons. 4 - may be exempt from air regulations in order to comply to an ATC instruction. 5 - may ask for the modification of an unsatisfactory clearance. Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?
3 - 5
202. The prescribed re-examination of a licence holder operating in an area distant from designated medical examination facilities may be deferred at the discretion of the licence authority, provided that such deferment shall only be made as an exception and shall not exceed:
A single period of six month in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non-commercial operations.
203. The primary duty provided by a radar unit is:
To provide radar separation.
204. The privilege to land for non-traffic purposes, e.g. refuelling, maintenance is to following freedom of the air:
2nd freedom.
205. The proficiency check of a pilot took place the 15th of April. The validity of the previous proficiency check was the 30th of June. The period of the new proficiency check can be and can't exceed:
30th of April the following year.
206. The protection areas associated with instrument approach procedures are determined with the assumption that turns are performed at a bank angle of:
25° or the bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate, whichever is lower, for departure, approach or missed approach instrument procedures, as well as circling-to-land (with or without prescribed flight tracks).
207. The purpose of an aircraft accident investigation shall be:
The prevention of accidents.
208. The radar controller shall not request the pilot to adjust the speed where the aircraft has passed:
4 NM from the threshold on final approach.
209. The radar seperation minimum may be reduced but not below:
3.0 NM
210. The responsibility to institute an investigation into the circumstances of an accident rests with:
The State of Occurrence.
211. The Rome Convention and later amendments deal with:
damage caused by any aircraft to third parties on the surface.
212. The Rome Convention and later amendments deals with :
Damage caused by foreign aircraft to third parties on the surface
213. The runway edge lights shall be:
white.
214. The second freedom of the air is the :
right to land for a technical stop
215. The SIGMET service, is in the AIP, in the following part :
GEN
216. The speed limitation for both IFR flights and VFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as B, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMLS, is :
Not applicable
217. The State conducting an accident investigation shall:
Publish a final report according to ICAO Standards.
218. The STOPWAY is a defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of take-off run available prepared as a suitable area where:
An aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off.
219. The surveillance radar approach shall be terminated at a distance of 2 NM from the touchdown except when as determined by the appropriate ATS authority, the accuracy of the radar equipment permits to be continued to a prescribed point less than 2 NM from the touchdown. In this case distance and level information shall be given at each
half NM
220. The take-off mass of MEDIUM aircraft is as follows:
Less than 136'000 kg but more than 7000 kg.
221. The transfer of an aircraft from one ATC unit to another is done :
by agreement with the receiving unit.
222. The transfer of an aircraft from one ATC unit to another is done:
by agreement with the receiving unit
223. The transition level:
is calculated by ATS.
224. The validity period of an IR (A) is
one year
225. The vertical position of an aircraft at or below the transition altitude will be reported:
as altitude.
226. The VMC minima for a VFR flight inside an ATS airspace classified as B, is :
8 km visibility when at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL and clear of clouds
227. To be able to execute a public transport flight, the minimum and maximum age (with ATPL) is :
21 and 59 years
228. Track separation between aircraft using the same FIX shall be applied requiring the aircraft to fly:
At least 45° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the fix.
229. Track separation between aircraft using the same NDB shall be applied requiring the aircraft to fly:
At least 30° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the facility.
230. Track separation between aircraft using the same VOR shall be applied requiring the aircraft to fly:
At least 15° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the facility.
231. Two aircraft are reporting over the same VOR, they should be separated by:
at least 15° and a distance of 15 nm
232. Two minutes separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on the same track, when:
The preceeding aircraft is 40 kt or more faster than the following aircraft.
233. Type ratings shall be established
for any type of aircraft whenever considered necessary by the authority
234. Unaccompanied baggage carried by air shall be cleared under the procedure applicable to :
accompanied baggage or under another simplified customs procedure distinct from that normally applicable to other cargo
235. Under what circumstances would an ILS glide path in excess of 3° be used?
Where other means of obstacle clearance are impracticable.
236. Under which conditions may an aircraft on a straight-in-VOR approach continue its descend below the OCA?
When the aircraft is in visual contact with the ground and with the runway lights in sight
237. Unless otherwise indicated, the missed approach procedures published on the IAC charts are based on a minimum climb gradient of:
2.5%
238. Upon intercepting the assigned radial, the controller advises you that you are on the airway and to "resume own navigation". This phrase means that:
You are to assume responsability for your own navigation.
239. Using the ground - air visual signal code, the letter similar to the symbol meanning "REQUIRE MEDICAL ASSISTANCE" is :
2
240. What are the controlled IFR separation methods applied by ATC?
Vertical, horizontal and composite separation.
241. What are the three Air Traffic Services ?
Air Traffic Services, Flight Information Services, Alerting Services
242. What colour are apron markings?
A contrasting colour from the taxiway markings.
243. What does the abbreviation OIS mean?
Obstacle identification surface.
244. What is a "barrette"?
three or more groundlights closely spaced together to appear as a bar of lights.
245. What is a 'barrette' ? .
a set of three lights which, from a distance, look like a single bar
246. What is a PAPI ?
Precision Approach Path Indicator
247. What is meant when departure control instruct you to "resume own navigation" after you have been vectored to an airway?
You should maintain that airway by use of your navigation equipment.
248. What is the length of an approach lighting system of a precision-approach runway CAT II :
900m
249. What is the maximum gradient for the final approach segment of a non. precision approach ?
6.5%
250. What is the minimum lateral limit of the approach area into a control zone from the centre of the aerodrome in the direction from which approaches may be made ?
+/- 5nm
251. What is the minimum longitudinal separation between aircraft at the same level using DME ?
10 nm when the aircraft in front is 20 knots faster
252. What is the minimum separation for an aircraft in the MEDIUM weight category from an aircraft in the Heavy weight category on the approach ?
2 minutes
253. What is the minimum wake turbulence separation criteria when a light aircraft is taking off behind a medium aircraft and both are using the same runway ?
2 minutes
254. What is the most important factor when designing an instrument departure procedure ?
terrain
255. What is the normal procedure design climb gradient for a missed approach procedure?
2.5 %
256. What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern up to FL 140?
1 minute
257. What is the principle requirement for a signals area on an aerodrome?
It must be clearly visible from the air.
258. What is the speed limit (IAS) in airspace class E ?
250 kts for IFR and VFR up to FL 100.
259. What is the speed limit (IAS) in airspace class E?
250 kt for IFR and VFR UP TO FL 100
260. What lighting is required for runways to be used for take-off in an operating minimum below an RVR of approximately 400 m?
Edge lighting and centre line lighting.
261. What will be your action if you can not comply with a standard holding pattern?
inform the ATC immediately and request a revised clearance.
262. When a contracting state renders valid a licence issued by another contracting state, the validity of the authorization:
Shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence.
263. When a person is found inadmissible and is returned to the operator for transport away from the territory of the state, the operator :
shall not be preclude from recovering from such person any transportation costs arising from his (her) inadmissibility
264. When a RADAR operator says the following to an aircraft: "fly heading 030", the pilot must fly heading:
030° magnetic
265. When a surveillance radar approaches is to be continued to the threshold of the runway transmission should not be interrupted for intervals of more than five seconds while the aircraft is within a distance of :
4 NM from the touchdown
266. When an aircraft has sustained damage, the aircraft shall be allowed to resume its flight, if
the state of registry considers that the damage sustained is of a nature such that the aircraft is still airworthy
267. When an aircraft subjected to an unlawful interference has landed it shall notify by the most expedious means of the State of Registry of the aircraft and the State of the operator of the landing and shall similarly transmit all other relevant information to the:
two aforementioned States, each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries, each State whose citizens were detained as hostages, each State whose citizens are known to be on board the aircraft and the ICAO.
268. When an aircraft subjected to an unlawful interference has landed it shall notify by the most expeditius means of the State of registry of the aircraft and the State of the operator of the landing and shall similarly transmit all other relevant information to the:
Two aforementioned States, each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries, each State whose citizens were detained as hostages, each State whose citizens are known to be on board the aircraft and the ICAO
269. When an aircraft will pass through the level of another aircraft on the same track, the following minimum longitudinal separation shall be provided:
15 minutes at the time the level is crossed.
270. When applying longitudinal separation based on distance (DME), the minimum separation between two aircraft on reciprocal tracks climbing or descending through the same flight level shall be at least:
10 nm
271. When are ATIS broadcasts updated ?
Upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of content change or reported values
272. When can separation in the vicinity of an aerodrome be reduced ?
when the pilot has the aircraft ahead visual
273. When cargo, unaccompanied baggage or stores are not unladen at their intended destination but are unladen at another international airport, the contracting state where the unlading takes place; if satisfied that there has been no gross negligence or careless by the operator
shall not impose penalties, fines, customs duties and taxes on the operator
274. When climbing or descending through the level of opposite direction traffic what is the minimum procedural separation allowed when based on distances from the same DME ?
10 nm
275. When desinsecting is required by a Contracting State as a public health measure, the desinsecting is made when the aircraft is suitably equipped by means of an automatic dispersal or vapour while the aircraft is flying, but as far in advance as possible and:
At least 30 minute prior to land.
276. When has a flight plan to be filed at the latest:
60 minutes before departure or, if filed in flight, 10 minutes before the aircraft is estimated to reach the intended point of entry into a control area or advisory area or the point of crossing an airway or advisory route.
277. When it becomes apparent that an aircraft is in difficulty, the decision to initiate the alert phases is the responsibility of the:
operational air traffic control centres
278. When letters are used for the registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with the
five letter combinations used in the international code of signals
279. When letters are used for the registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent or distress signals for example
XXX
280. When may ATC assign a level previously occupied by another aircraft.
After the aircraft has reported vacating this level.
281. When mixing or contact does take place between passengers subjected to security control and other persons not subjected to such control after the security screening points at airports serving internationnal civil aviation have been passed
the passengers concerned and their cabin baggage shall be re screened before boarding an aircraft
282. When on a RNP 1 route is indicated A342 Z, means that all turns shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments with a radius of :
15 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and below FL 190
283. When radar identification of aircraft has been achieved, ATC unit shall:
Inform the aircraft prior to issue any instructions or advice based on the use of radar.
284. When shall an ATIS broadcast be updated?
Immediately when a significant change occurs.
285. When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C equipment, the pilot:
Shall continuously operate this mode unless otherwise directed by ATC.
286. When the first character of the registration mark is a letter:
It shall be preceded by a hyphen
287. When the transponder appears to be unserviceable prior to departure and restorage is impossible, than :
departure to the nearest suitable airport where repair can be effected is allowed
288. When the visual manoeuvring (circling) area has been established the obstacle clearance altitude/height (OCA/H) is determined:
For each category of aircraft, and it may be different for each one of them.
289. When using parallel runway operations and vectoring aircraft for an ILS approach, how far in advance of intercepting the glideslope should an aircraft be established on the localiser ?
2 nm
290. When vectoring an aircraft to intercept the localizer course, the final vector furnished shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the localizer course at an angle not greater than:
30 degrees.
291. When, in air space where VFR are permitted, the pilot in command of an IFR flight wishes to continue his flight in accordance with visual flight rules, until the destination is reached: 1 He must inform the control unit ("cancel IFR") 2 He must request and obtain clearance. 3 He may request his IFR flight plan to be changed to a VFR flight plan. 4 The flight plan automatically becomes a VFR flight plan. The correct combination of statements is:
1 and 4
292. Whenever unlawful interference with an aircraft is suspected, and where automatic distinct display of SSR Mode A code 7500 and code 7700 is not provided, the radar controller shall attempt to verify this suspicion by :
Setting the SSR decoder to mode A code 7500 and thereafter to code 7700
293. Where a final approach fix (FAF) is specified for a non-precision approach procedure, what is the minimum obstacle clearance fixed margin that is applied for all aircraft?
75 m (246 ft)
294. Where a parking bay is not provided at an aerodrome for the use by aircraft that have been subject to unlawful interference, what is the minimum distance that parking bay is to be from other bays?
100 m
295. Where an upper flight information region (UIR) is established, the procedures applicable there in :
need not to be identical with those applicable in the underlying flight information region
296. Where does the initial approach segment in an instrument approach procedure commence?
At the IAF.
297. Where does the initial phase of a missed approach procedure end?
At the point where the climb is established.
298. Where does the initial section of a missed approach procedure end?
When established in the climb.
299. Which code shall be used on mode "A" to provide recognition of an emergency aircraft?
Code 7700.
300. Which does ATC Term "Radar contact" signify?
Your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight instructions will be provided until radar identification is terminated.
301. Which is the minimum obstacle clearance within the primary area of an intermediate approach segment?
150 m
302. Which is the normal still air outbound time in a holding pattern?
One and one half minute for altitudes above 14'000 ft.
303. Which is the obstacle clearance in the primary area of the intermediate approach segment in an instrument approach procedure?
150m (492 ft).
304. Which is the permanent body of ICAO being responsible to the Assembly?
The Council.
305. Which letter is used in a flight plan to indicate that the flight commences in accordance with IFR and subsequently changes to VFR?
Y
306. Which letter is used in a flight plan to indicate that the flight commences in accordance with VFR and subsequently changes to IFR?
Z
307. Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains international standards and recommended practices for air traffic services (ATS)?
Annex 11
308. Which of the following correctly describes runway end lights?
Fixed; uni-directional; red.
309. Which of the following defines a visual approach?
When an instrument approach is not completed and visual reference to terrain is subsequently maintained.
310. Which of the following group shows the correct designators for three parallel runways seen from the direction ot the approach?
29L, 29C, 29R
311. Which of the following is not a valid SSR mode A squawk?
A5678
312. Which of the following is NOT an international distress frequency ?
2430 KHz
313. Which of the following is not shown on an approach plate ?
DME frequency
314. Which of the following lights is a high intensity obstacle light:
Flashing white light.
315. Which of the following objectives is not an objective of air traffic services?
Provide advice and information for the safe and efficient preparation of flights.
316. Which of the following statements is correct ?
a Control Area will not be lower than 700 ft agl
317. Which of the following statements is correct with respect to unlawful interference ?
each state shall ensure that aircraft unlawfully seized which have landed in their country are detained on the ground unless the overriding factor is to protect passengers. lives
318. Which of the following statements regarding Alerting service is correct ?
Alerting Service and Flight Information Service are often provided by the same ATS unit.
319. Which of the following statements regarding Alerting service is correct?
Alerting Service and Flight Information Service are often provided by the same ATS unit
320. Which of the following would be described as aerodrome traffic?
All traffic on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome and flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome.
321. Which of the following,according to ICAO Annex 13, shall be entitled to appoint an accredited representative to participate in the investigation?
any State which, on request, provides information, facilities or experts to the State conducting the investigation
322. Which one of the statements is correct :
contracting states shall accept an oral declaration of baggage from passengers and crew
323. Which phase of emergency is declared if an aircraft is known or believed to be the subject of unlawful interference?
ALERFA
324. Which procedure you follow if during an IFR flight in VMC you have two way communication failure?
Continue the flight maintaining VMC and land as soon as practicable.
325. Which statement is correct?
The lower limit of a TMA shall be established at a height of at least 700ft AGL;
326. Which statement regarding approach control service is correct ?
If it is anticipated that an aircraft has to hold for 30 minutes or more, an Expected Approach Time will be transmitted by the most expeditious means to the aircraft
327. Which statement regarding approach control service is correct?
If it is anticipated that an aircraft has to hold for 30 minutes or more, an Expected Approach Time will be transmitted by the most expeditious means to the aircraft.
328. Who establishes the OCA/H (Obstacle Clearance Altitude/Height) for an approach procedure?
the state
329. Who is competent to issue a Certificate of Airworthiness?
The Contracting State which approves the aircraft on the basis of satisfactory evidence that the aircraft complies with appropriated airworthiness requirements.
330. Who is responsible to determine minimum flight altitudes for ATS routes?
Each State for ATS routes over their territory.
331. Who is responsible to initiate a phase of emergency (INCERFA, ALERFA, DETRESFA)?
ATS units (ATC, FIS).
332. Why is the descent gradient kept as low as possible in the intermediate approach segment?
This is the segment in which speed and configuration are adjusted.
333. You are on an IFR flight executing a circling approach. A descend below the MDA should not be made until : 1. the pilot has the landing threshold in sight 2. visual reference has been established and can be maintained 3. the required obstacle clearance can be maintained and a landing can be made The combination regrouping all the answers is :
1, 2, 3.
334. You are on an IFR flight executing a circling approach. A descend below the MDA should not be made until:1. the pilot has the landing threshold in sight.2. visual reference has been established and can be maintained.3. the required obstacle clearance can be maintained and a landing can be made.The combination regrouping all the answers is:
1, 2 and 3.
335. You have received holding instructions for a radio fix. The published holding procedure is: all turns to the right, 1 minute outbound, inbound MC 052°. You are approaching the fix an inbound Magnetic Track 232°. Select the available entry procedure.
Either "off set" or "parallel".
336. A CAT I operation is a precision approach and landing using an ILS, MLS or PAR with a DH not lower than .... ft and with a RVR not less than .... m.
200, 550
337. A flight plan delay message must be sent after a delay of:
30 minutes.
338. A holding pattern is established on inbound radial 000 degrees to VOR NTM. You are approaching the VOR from the Southwest. What type of entry procedure is required?
Parallel entry (sector 1).
339. A marshaller has his arms above his head in vertical position palms facing inward. This means that:
you should proceed to this bay.
340. A MEDIUM (wake turbulence category) aircraft is following a HEAVY category aircraft during a radar approach. What is the minimum wake turbulence radar separation to be applied?
5 NM.
341. A medium and light aircraft are using parallel runways less than 760 metres apart. What is the minimum wake turbulence radar separation?
5 NM.
342. A missed approach procedure consists of:
3 phases.
343. A NOTAM is to be issued to addressees for whom the information is of operational significance provided they would not have .... days prior notification.
7.
344. A pilot operating outside controlled airspace below 3,000 ft should set his altimeter to:
any desired setting.
345. A public transport aircraft shall not take-off unless the following minima for the departure airfield are satisfactory:
cloud ceiling and RVR.
346. A red square with a yellow diagonal displayed in the signals area indicates:
the state of the manoeuvring area is poor.
347. A Rescue Unit is :
A unit composed of trained personnel and provided with equipment suitable for the expeditious conduct of SAR.
348. A situation in which apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft. To which emergency phase does this situation correspond?
ALERFA
349. A visual manoeuvring (circling) area may be sectored to exclude a prominent obstacle. When is this is permitted?
The obstacle is outside the final approach or missed approach areas.
350. Above 30000ft, the vertical separation between aircraft on reciprocal tracks will be:
1000ft within RVSM airspace, 2000ft within all other airspace.
351. According to Annex 7 (Aircraft Nationality and Registration Markings) certain combinations of letters are not to be used. These include:
All of the above
352. Aerodrome lights may be turned off providing they can be brought into operation within .. minutes of the expected arrival of an aeroplane. Which answer correctly fills in the blank space?
1 hour
353. Aerodrome rescue and firefighting categories are based upon:
length and width of aircraft.
354. Aircraft separated horizontally by track separation when using a NDB facility are considered to be separated when:
at a minimum distance of 28 km, tracks diverging by at least 30 degrees.
355. Aircraft transitioning from domestic airspace into oceanic airspace are required to fly tracks separated by 15 degrees until ....
the applicable lateral separation is established.
356. Airfield beacons (aeronautical beacons) usually show:
white flashing strobe light.
357. Airfield elevation is the altitude of the:
highest point on the landing area.
358. An AIP shall contain:
GEN; ENR; AD
359. An aircraft Captain should transmit special aircraft observations when he encounters:
all of these.
360. An aircraft is in emergency when:
It is threatened by grave danger and requires immediate assistence.
361. An aircraft shall not carry munitions of war:
unless the written permission of the Authority and the operator is obtained.
362. An Expected Approach Time (EAT) is given:
when an aircraft is instructed to hold.
363. An expected approach time is given:
when an aircraft is instructed to hold.
364. An IFR clearance is always valid:
To the clearance limit.
365. An instrument rating test is valid for a period of:
12 months.
366. An operator shall not use a RVR of less than .... for a visual approach.
800 m
367. Annex 8 covers airworthiness of aircraft. Who is responsible for the administration of the Certificates of Airworthiness?
The authority of the state of registration.
368. ATC clearances are based on:
Both B and C are correct.
369. Before a radar service is provided to an aircraft:
radar identification is to be established and the pilot informed accordingly.
370. Below and at the transition altitude, the altimeter setting should be:
QNH.
371. Clearance limit is defined as:
The point to which an aircraft is granted an ATC clearance.
372. Contracting states are required to have procedures in place for the safety of passengers and crew of aircraft subjected to unlawful interference. The procedures are to be applied:
Until their journey can be continued.
373. Controlled airspace extending upward to a defined limit from an altitude or flight level above the surface of the Earth is called:
A Control Area.
374. Controlled airspace where IFR and VFR traffic are separated and traffic information is provided to VFR has a classification:
C.
375. Descend below MDA/H is only allowed when ....
visual reference with the runway is established and can be maintained.
376. Does an ATC clearance always include prevention of collision with terrain?
Only when the aircraft is being radar vectored
377. Dry snow is snow which:
will fall apart again if compacted by hand.
378. During a non precision approach, the maximum interception angle to the initial segment track is:
120 deg
379. During an omni-directional departure, what height are you required to climb to before turning onto the desired track?
120 m (394 ft)
380. During initial climb in uncontrolled airspace, the altimeter setting should be:
any desired value.
381. During taxi to the runway for take off, the aircraft is accidentally taxied onto the grass and the undercarriage is seriously damaged. Nobody on board or on the ground is hurt. What type of occurrence is this?
Accident
382. During the arrival and initial segments of an instrument procedure, what is the obstacle clearance provided (not in mountainous areas)?
Not less than 300 m
383. Each AIRAC AIP amendment page shall display:
The effective date.
384. Flight above the transition altitude is referenced to:
Flight levels when 1013 hPa is set.
385. Flight below the transition level is referenced to:
Altitude with local QNH set, or height with local QFE set.
386. Flying a holding pattern in a turbine powered aircraft at FL110, the max speed in still air is:
230 kts
387. For a circling approach, the minimum OCH above aerodrome level is:
depends on aircraft category.
388. For a non-precision approach, the final approach fix (FAF) is set at a specified distance from the threshold of the instrument runway. What is the maximum this distance can be?
19 Km (10 nm).
389. For inbound procedures, how many copies of the required forms are to be delivered to the public authority in a state?
3 gen dec; 3 cargo manifest; 2 simple stores list.
390. For outbound procedures, how many copies of the required forms are to be delivered to the public authority in a state?
2 gen dec; 2 cargo manifest; 2 simple stores list.
391. For planning purposes, an aerodrome is categorised by aerodrome reference code. This code is composed of two elements: a number and a letter. What does the number relate to?
Aerodrome reference field length.
392. For separation purposes, which of the following defines 'crossing tracks'?
Angular difference between tracks of 45 deg or more, but not exceeding 315 deg.
393. Give the minimum lateral limits of a CTR?
5NM in the direction of the approach.
394. High intensity obstacle lights should be used to indicate the presence of an object if its length above the level of the surrounding ground exceeds .... and an aeronautical study indicates such lights to be essential for the recognition of the object by .... The lights shall be ....
150m, day, flashing white lights.
395. How close to the boundary of a radar vectoring area can an aircraft be vectored by the radar controller?
Half the radar separation distance or 2.5 nm whichever is greater
396. How is night defined?
The hours between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight.
397. How long is a class 1 medical certificate valid for?
12 months if age below 40 and 6 months if above 40.
398. How long is a pilot licence is valid for?
5 years
399. How many pairs of touchdown zone markings are required on a runway with a length of 2500 m?
6.
400. If a pilot wishes to cancel an IFR flight plan and proceed under VFR in VMC, he must inform ATC and include the phrase:
Cancelling my IFR flight.
401. If an aeroplane cannot squawk IDENT, which of the following is a valid method by which ATC can identify an aeroplane that is squawking mode A codes?
Switch SSR to STANDBY then ON again.
402. If unidentified baggage is found at an airport:
The baggage must be placed in a secure and isolated area in case it contains explosive devices.
403. If you are flying a surveillance radar approach (SRA). What information is reported by the radar controller?
Distance from touchdown and pre-computed levels through which the aircraft should be passing to maintain the glide path.
404. In a CTA where VFR and IFR flights are allowed and separation is applied to all traffic, the classification is:
B.
405. In a holding pattern all turns should be made:
to the right except otherwise described by the appropriate authority.
406. In a standard holding pattern, all turns should be made ....
to the right at a bank angle of 25 degrees or at a rate of 3 degrees per second, whichever requires the lesser bank.
407. In case of a non-precision approach, the angle between the extended runway centre line and the final approach track is .... degrees or less.
30°.
408. In the event of a delay of 30 minutes in excess of the estimated EOBT for a controlled flight, which of the following actions is required?
The flight plan should be amended or a new flight plan should be submitted and the old flight plan cancelled, whichever is applicable.
409. In the hold at FL60, what is the normal holding speed in a cat B aircraft?
230 kts
410. In which circumstance does the holder of a medical certificate need to inform the authority?
Need for the regular use of correcting lenses.
411. In which class of airspace is IFR and VFR permitted; IFR is separated from all traffic, VFR separated from IFR and receives traffic information about other VFR traffic?
Class C
412. In which class(es) of airspace can you fly VFR without a radio?
E
413. Information signs (exept location signs), consist of an inscription in .... on a .... background.
black, yellow
414. Is the length of the outbound leg of a holding pattern always expressed in terms of time?
No, where DME is used it may be specified in terms of distance.
415. It has been raining but the surface of a runway has no patches of standing water on it. How would ATC describe the state of the runway in this situation?
Damp.
416. Mandatory signs consist of an iscription in .... on a .... background.
white, red
417. Normal horizontal separation provided by radar units is:
5 NM.
418. Objects located beyond 15 km radius of the aerodrome are normally considered to be obstacles in flight (enroute obstacles) if they exceed .... in height.
150 meters.
419. OCH for a precision approach is defined as:
The lowest height above the elevation of the relevant runway threshold , at which a missed approach must be initiated to ensure compliance with the appropriate obstacle clearance criteria.
420. On a general declaration form, the following data can be found:
aircraft registration mark, flight number, date and place of departure, destination and, number of crew and passengers.
421. PANS-OPS means:
Procedures for Air Navigation Services - Aircraft operations.
422. Passenger A has passed through security and meets passenger B who has not been through security. What should be the subsequent procedure?
Passenger A to pass through security again.
423. Rescue and firefighting (emergency) services provision is categorised according to physical characteristics of the type of aeroplane using the aerodrome. This classification is based upon ...
aeroplane overall length and fuselage width.
424. Runway centre line lights shall be fixed lights showing variable .... from the threshold to the point 900m from the runway end, alternate .... and variable .... from 900m to 300m from runway end, and .... from 300m to the runway end.
white, red and white, red
425. Runway Visual Range is reported and passed to an aircraft when the visibility falls below:
1500 m.
426. Runway Visual range is reported to the pilot when the visibility is:
1,500 m or less.
427. Standards and Recommended Practices for Security are contained in ICAO ANNEX ....
17.
428. State who is responsible for assigning registration marks and how registration marks may be composed.
The registration mark may consist of letters, numbers or a combination of both and is to be that assigned by the State of Registry.
429. Take-off distance available is defined as:
the take-off run available plus the clearway.
430. Taxiway edge lights are:
Fixed showing blue.
431. Taxiway edge lights shall be fixes lights showing:
blue.
432. The alerting service is provided for:
All of the above.
433. The controlling authority for a CTA is an:
ACC
434. The criterion that determines the specific level occupied by an aircraft (except that the appropriate ATC unit may specify a lesser criterion) is:
+/- 300 ft
435. The declared take-off run available at an aerodrome is:
the take-off distance available less the clearway.
436. The document that specifies the recommendations for instrument procedures is called ....
PANS OPS Doc 8168.
437. The elevation of the highest known obstacle for the following procedure is:
1132 ft.
438. The following frequencies are carried by SAR aircraft:
121,5 MHz and 243,0 MHz.
439. The following sign is a:
information sign.
440. The holding direction of a holding pattern is 052°(M). You are flying inbound to hold on a track of 232°(M). What type of join should you make?
Pilots choice (B or C)
441. The ICAO limit for the accuracy of VOR information on 95% of occasions is:
+ or - 5 degrees by day or night.
442. The ILS glidepath is normally intercepted between:
3 and 10NM.
443. The initial missed approach segment:
Begins at the MAPt and ends where the climb is established.
444. The maximum angle of bank to be used in a holding pattern is:
25°.
445. The maximum speed for an aircraft flying in class F or G airspace below FL100 is:
250 kts IAS.
446. The minimum age for the issue of an ATPL(A) license is:
21 years.
447. The minimum height to which an aircraft may safely continue a precision approach, without visual reference is known as the:
decision height.
448. The obstacle clearance surfaces of an ILS approach assumes a pilot localiser accuracy of:
1/2 scale
449. The optimum descent gradient in the final approach should not exceed :
5 percent.
450. The part of an aerodrome provided for the stationing of aircraft for the purpose of embarking and disembarking passengers, loading and unloading of cargo and refuelling and parking is known as:
the apron.
451. The part of an aerodrome used for embarking and disembarking passengers, loading of cargo and mail as well as the the servicing of aircraft is called?
Apron.
452. The privilege for an airplane registered in one state and enroute to or from that state, to take on passengers, mail and cargo in a second state and put them down in a third state is called:
Fifth freedom rights
453. The privilege of landing in another state for a technical stop only is called:
the second freedom of the air.
454. The privilege to fly across the territory of another participating state without landing is called:
the first freedom of the air.
455. The procedure design gradient (PDG) consists of:
2.5% OIS and 0.8% increasing obstacle clearance margin
456. The still air time for flying the outbound heading should not exceed .... if above 14,000ft.
1,5 minutes.
457. The suffix Y is applied to the designator of an ATS route to indicate turns between 30 and 90 deg, when?
FL200 and above with a tangential arc of 22.5 nm
458. The threshold elevation of runway 02 in the following procedure is:
180 ft.
459. The wake turbulence category - heavy - is applied to aircraft of (MTOM):
136,000 kg or more.
460. To indicate the existence of a fuel emergency to ATC a pilot should:
declare - MAYDAY - if an emergency, or - PAN PAN - if urgent.
461. To which aircraft should a Flight Information Service be provided?
To all traffic which is likely to be affected by the information and are provided with an ATC service or are otherwise known to ATC.
462. Transition altitude is defined as:
the altitude at or below which the vertical position of aircraft is expressed in reference to mean sea level.
463. Typical declared runway distances are:
TORA, TODA, ASDA and LDA.
464. Under the terms of the Tokyo convention of 1963, what is a contracting state required to do in the event of an act of unlawful seizure occuring within the territory of that state?
The state shall take all appropriate measures to restore control of the aircraft to its lawful Commander, or to preserve his control of the aircraft.
465. Under what circumstances is a pilot often unable to determine the position of the aircraft and consequently the altitude which provides the required obstacle clearance?
When an IFR flight is vectored by a radar unit.
466. What are the 5 segments of an instrument approach procedure?
Arrival, Initial, Intermediate, final and missed approach.
467. What can the Commander of an aircraft do if he has reason to believe that a person has or is about to commit an offence in the aeroplane that is against penal law?
All anwers are correct.
468. What colour are runway markings?
White
469. What colour are the AIP SUPP pages in the UK?
Yellow
470. What colour is an aerodrome beacon at a land aerodrome?
Green or green/white
471. What colour streamer identifies food and water dropped to survivors?
Blue
472. What colour streamer identifies medical supplies dropped to survivors?
Red
473. What colour streamer would identify cooking stoves dropped to survivors?
Black
474. What does a white line drawn across a runway indicate?
The threshold.
475. What does code element 2 of the aerodrome reference code refer to?
Wing span and outer main gear wheel span
476. What does 'Omit position reports' mean?
The flight is exempt from making position reports.
477. What does the SAR ground signal 'V' mean?
We need assistance.
478. What is a controlled flight?
Any flight which is subject to an air traffic control clearance.
479. What is a danger area?
An airspace of defined dimensions within which activities dangerous to the flight of aircraft may exist at specified times.
480. What is a low visibility take-off?
A take-off on a runway where the RVR is less than 400m.
481. What is GCA?
Ground controlled approach
482. What is meant by aerodrome traffic?
Traffic flying in the vicinity of the aerodrome and all traffic on the manoeuvring area.
483. What is required for IFR traffic flying in advisory airspace but not electing to use the air traffic advisory service?
Submit a flight plan and notify any changes to the unit providing that service.
484. What is the colour of runway edge lights?
White.
485. What is the correct content of 'essential traffic' information messages to aircraft?
Direction; type; level; ETA over the relevant reporting point.
486. What is the deviation allowed either side of track between entry sectors when joining a hold?
5 degrees.
487. What is the divergence angle that must be maintained from overhead an NDB to a range of 15nm to allow one aircraft to climb/descend through the level of another?
30 deg
488. What is the fire fighting and rescue category of an aerodrome based on?
Overall length and fuselage width of aeroplanes using the aerodrome
489. What is the JAR FCL definition of instrument time?
Instrument flight time or instrument ground time.
490. What is the longitudinal separation between acft on the same route, the preceding aircraft is 20kts faster then the following?
5 minutes providing both aircraft have departed from the same aerodrome.
491. What is the lowest DH for a Cat 1 ILS?
200 ft above the threshold
492. What is the meaning of the following ground-air visual signal?
We have found nothing, but we will continue to search.
493. What is the meaning of V seen on the ground in the vicinity of an aircraft crash site?
Assistance required.
494. What is the meaning of WIP?
Work in progress
495. What is the minimum obstacle clearance guaranteed at the edge of the buffer area (5 nm outside of the holding area) of a holding pattern?
0 m (0 ft).
496. What is the minimum separation between departing aircraft, if aircraft are to fly on tracks diverging by at least 45 degrees immediately after take-off, so that lateral separation is also provided?
1 minute.
497. What is the minimum separation that can be applied between departing aircraft where the departure tracks diverge by 45 deg?
1 min
498. What is the minimum time separation applied between a light aircraft taking off behind a heavy where both start the take off run from the threshold of the runway?
2 minutes
499. What is the name of a climb or descent in a holding pattern?
Shuttle
500. What is the objective of aerodrome control?
All of the above.
501. What is the objective of filing an ATIR (Air Traffic Incident Report)?
To promote aircraft flight safety.
502. What is the objective of the alerting service?
To notify appropriate organisations regarding aircraft in need of assistance.
503. What is the obstacle clearance in the intermediate approach segment?
Reducing from 300 m to 150 m
504. What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern below FL 140 (no wind)?
1 minute.
505. What is the primary objective of an accident/incident investigation?
To find out what happened and prevent further instances.
506. What is the purpose of a Crew Member's Certificate (CMC)?
To provide identification of aircrew.
507. What is the radar wake turbulence separation between a heavy category aircraft and a light category aircraft, where the light aircraft is operating directly behind the heavy?
6 nm
508. What is the steepest descent path permitted for a non precision approach?
6.5%
509. What separation is applied by ATC?
Vertical; horizontal and composite separation
510. What services are provided to IFR and VFR traffic flying in class E airspace?
IFR gets ATC and radio fitted VFR gets FIS.
511. What shape is a landing direction indicator:
T
512. What SSR squawk would you set in the absence of any specific code instruction from ATC, when flying in airspace where a radar service is available?
A/2000+C
513. What type of air traffic service is provided in class F airspace?
ATC advisory service to all participating IFR flights and flight information service to all flights if requested.
514. What type of turn is the turn from outbound to inbound during an instrument approach procedure?
Track reversal manoeuvre
515. When aircraft are using the same runway, a landing aircraft may be permitted to touch down before a preceding landing aircraft is clear of the runway:
all statements are true.
516. When an aircraft is being operated in the air or on the movement area of an aerodrome, it shall be in accordance with:
All of the above
517. When can the required noise abatement procedure be disregarded?
At PICs discretion where safety is an issue.
518. When can the separation minima be reduced in the vicinity of an aerodrome?
Each aircraft is continuously visible to the aerodrome controller and adequate separation. exists
519. When exercising the privileges of the licence during flight time, what documents are required to be carried by the pilot?
Answers a and b plus a document containing a photograph of the holder of the licence and certificate.
520. When flying in advisory airspace separation is provided for:
all known traffic.
521. When parallel runway operations are in progress and reduced radar separation of 3 NM between approaching aeroplanes is maintained, what type of operations are being carried out?
Mode 2.
522. When should ATC pass the QNH to an aircraft?
Only a and c above are correct.
523. When the Mach Number technique is applied, what is the longitudinal separation that is applied between aircraft flying the same route at the same altitude?
10 mins
524. When you are asked to hold on a non standard holding fix (eg en route) what direction are the turns made?
Left.
525. Where a final approach fix (FAF) is specified for a non-precision approach procedure, what is the minimum obstacle clearance fixed margin that is applied for all aircraft?
75 m (247 ft).
526. Where a parking bay is provided at an aerodrome suitable for the parking of an aircraft which is known of believed to be the subject of unlawful interference, what is the minimum distance that this parking bay needs to be separated form any other parking areas, buildings, ...
100 m.
527. Where a runway has a displaced threshold and the whole of the runway is used for take-off, which of the following runway lights can be used to indicate the centre of the runway from the beginning of a runway to the displaced threshold?
An approach lighting system if its characteristics and intensity settings afford the guidance required during take-off and it does not dazzle the pilot of an aircraft taking off.
528. Where does the initial section of a missed approach procedure end?
when established in the climb.
529. Where ends the initial missed approach segment?
At the point where the climb is established.
530. Where independent parallel runway operations are in progress, what is the maximum permitted interception angle to intercept the localiser (centreline)?
30 deg.
531. Where unaccompanied baggage is carried on board an aircraft:
Additional security measures are to be applied.
532. Where was the 1952 convention that deals with damage caused by foreign aircraft to third parties on the ground, held?
Rome
533. Which Annex to the Chicago Convention covers dangerous goods carried in aircraft?
Annex 18
534. Which annexes to the Chicago Convention deals with registration and marking of aircraft?
Annex 7
535. Which convention deals with the liability of a carrier to passengers and freight consignees where the limit of compensation is limited to US$10 000 except in cases of gross negligence?
Warsaw
536. Which convention makes acts of violence on board, destruction of aircraft in flight and destroying or damaging any air navigation facility punishable:
The Montreal convention.
537. Which freedom gives the privilege to land for non-traffic purposes in another ICAO contracting state:
the 2nd freedom.
538. Which of the following approach speed ranges (Vat) is applicable for Category B aircraft ?
91 kts to 120 kts
539. Which of the following comprises lateral separation for two aircraft navigating via the same NDB?
Track separation of at least 30 deg and distance from the beacon at least 15 nm.
540. Which of the following contains administration, financial and legislative information?
AICs
541. Which of the following correctly defines the NOZ for parallel runway operations?
The NOZ extends from runway threshold to the point where aircraft are normally established on the localiser
542. Which of the following defines transition altitude?
The altitude at which 1013 mb is set and vertical position then reported as a flight level.
543. Which of the following ground signals displayed on an aerodrome would indicate that glider flying is in progress?
Two red balls suspended from a mast.
544. Which of the following is correct concerning the advisory service?
Advisory ATC 'advises or suggests' when a course of action is desired.
545. Which of the following is correct with regard to radar vectoring?